Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello,

I am confused.  I am trying to sort out the diffences but I don't see it.

For example, in the sentences:  both mean: It is good that you study every afternoon.

Es bueno que estudies todas las tardes.

Está bien que estudies todas las tardes.

Es + bueno [adjective]
Está + bien [adverb]

Can you show the relationships for each?

Any difference at all in the individual meaning?

And why would you use one over the other? And under what circumstances?

Any other lessons to clarify this?

As you can tell, I’m confused! Help. J

Hola,

If agua is a feminine noun that takes 'el" in the singular, would it be correct to say ...... para usarlo? I tried it and was marked wrong, so can you help me understand it.

Many thanks

John

Hi, I was a bit surprised to see this use of "gustar" as none of the books I have mention this usage i.e. Barron's 501 verbs, shows only that this verb is  used in the third person, etc.    Would it be a Iberian usage?  I am in Canada and study Latin American Spanish [looking forward to that distinction in your program:) -- any news on that?]

Thank you. Nicole

I have understood that in Spain, the -se conjugation was used more in writing and formal situations, and -ra was more conversational. Is that not correct?