Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,351 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,351 learners
Hello,
I'm just wondering about the use of the reflexive comprarse. It is used in this example:
En esta tienda pueden comprarse unas joyas muy bonitas.You can buy very nice jewels in this shop
Why is the reflexive used here, and in general when do we use comprarse instead of comprar?
Thanks!Marcos
In terms of usage, can había considered to be the the past tense of hay? Había =There was' vs. Hay = 'there is'?
You use va a disfrutar. Should it have been van since you are referring to gente, multiple people?
Será mejor que aparques lejos del centro.
It'd be better if you park far from the town centre. [you=tú]
is the above translation correct?Será - it will be or Sería - it would be
many thanks in advance
Texto muy bueno y fácil para principiantes. La misma imagen hermosa con los cines de verano existe en mi país, Grecia.
At the other hand there are no examples for "por.
Can "por" also be interpreted as "by"
Leaving aside the issue of what you call this tense, I had trouble because I thought that the "perfect" tenses corresponded more closely with English in the sense of use of the auxiliary verb. It seems that most of the examples given show English translations with the auxiliary verb, but not all of them. So what is the difference between "No le dije" and "No le he dicho"? It would seem that the first translates to "I didn't tell him" and the second to "I haven't told him." But the examples seem to conflate the two.
Hello, I use several sources to learn Spanish, and the other ones suggest using Estar for relationships with husband and wife, is there any reason why they would be incorrect? Thanks
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level