Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am very confused. In the above lesson it describes when to use poder in the preterite indefinido.

in this lesson there seems to be No specific moment in the past or where speaker is outside the time frame 

This lesson "Conjugate poder in the preterite tense in Spanish (El Pretérito Indefinido)" it describes when to use the preterite indfinido when referring to a specific moment in past  and time it happened is relevent OR referes to pastwhere speakersees themselves outside the time frame

A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?

The lesson says:

We always use the singular form of verb gustar when followed by actions!

For example: Me gustan bailar y cantar.

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I think I understand the answer, but the example seems confusing since in this case gustar is being used with multiple verbs

In one of the examples above, shouldn't  it be admitiría? Or the translation should be She didn't admit 

No admitía que vosotras estuvieseis enfadadas con vuestros maridos.
She wouldn't admit that you were angry with your husbands.

Hola todos

It's a new year and I'm determined to master the subjunctive this year. So, I just got this question in a Kwiziq test

"Conjugate the vosotros form of "hablar" in El Presente Subjuntivo (Don´t talk to me like that) : No me ___ así."

Now, I did get the correct answer by selecting 'habléis'. However, strictly speaking, doesn't this answer represent the negative imperative rather than the present subjunctive? Of course both give the same answer and I understand there are crossovers in conjugations between the two tenses. But can the two have the same meaning in this case?

The reading exercise translates estadounidense as North American. Is this usage more common in Spain? I thought estadounidense meant American, and norteamericano = North American.