Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the lesson you give examples for estar deseando in imperfect, but not for tener ganas de. I feel pretty sure I could use tener ganas de in imperfect as well, but neither seems to fit well with preterite. 

Could you say more about how these two are used with other moods and tenses and what limitations, if any, exist.

EDIT: Sorry, I see you answered part of this in an earlier reply. However, could you indicate any other limitations that might apply. I wonder about subjunctive too.

Hola todos

It's a new year and I'm determined to master the subjunctive this year. So, I just got this question in a Kwiziq test

"Conjugate the vosotros form of "hablar" in El Presente Subjuntivo (Don´t talk to me like that) : No me ___ así."

Now, I did get the correct answer by selecting 'habléis'. However, strictly speaking, doesn't this answer represent the negative imperative rather than the present subjunctive? Of course both give the same answer and I understand there are crossovers in conjugations between the two tenses. But can the two have the same meaning in this case?

Usted ________ el dinero en euros. You would be paid in euros.HINT: Conjugate "cobrar" in El Condicional Simple

This appears to be a passive construction in English. It makes me want to translate tú serías cobrado el dinero en euros.

As written, doesn't the sentence in English mean "You would pay in Euros?"

Could I suggest adding a link to the aforementioned lesson so that that it's a little easier to see them difference between must have and should have? 

Gracias, Shirley. 

I'm not clear on what you mean by "(= a plural)"

Thanks