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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,924 questions • 9,691 answers • 981,363 learners
Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?
The question does not enquire about the existence of a florist but the location. Therefore according to the lesson explanation the answer should be “Donde está”. Please point me to the part of the lesson I have not understood.
1. Could you remember these exclusively as occasions in which you are pointing at something?
2. What about using "over there" when you refer to another country?
Gracias, Ricky
¿Señor Hernandez, ________ otra copa de vino?
I answered "quiere usted" and was marked wrong. It's ok, isn't it?
I used 'a donde' as on of three possible answers, but was marked wrong:
IMPORTANT
For the long forms adónde and adonde, it is also perfectly acceptable to write them as two separate words:
adonde = a dondeadónde = a dóndeFor example:
Iremos adonde/a donde tú quieras.¿Adónde/a dónde vas?I think "the U.S." should be translated as "los EE. UU.", not "EE. UU". I think in Britain, people often call the United States "United States", but in Spanish it would be better to say "los Estados Unidos".
I have a question about reflexive verbs. In general I understand the concept, and I in general I know when to recognize the verbs. What I have trouble with is knowing when to use them in a sentence. For example take these two sentence:
I walk in the morning. Camino por la mañana.
I bathe in the morning. Me baño por la mañana.
Now I use the Google translate app and one of these sentences uses a reflexive verb and its pronoun and one does not. I don't understand the difference. I understand "I bathe myself in the morning" is how the translation would be from Spanish to English. But why does "I walk in the morning" not translate as "I walk myself in the morning". After all I'm not walking the dog or walking somebody else, I'm walking myself. Or is this just a matter of the Google translate app being incorrect??
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