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6,078 questions • 9,956 answers • 1,036,784 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,078 questions • 9,956 answers • 1,036,784 learners
Would another way of explaining the difference be to say that in English you could get the meaning of the imperfect by saying "The teacher [was] opened[ing] the door" and the indefinido as "The teacher [had] opened the door"
I think "the U.S." should be translated as "los EE. UU.", not "EE. UU". I think in Britain, people often call the United States "United States", but in Spanish it would be better to say "los Estados Unidos".
"En su tiempo libre a Rafa le gusta jugar al golf, pescar, leer libros, ir al cine, ver series, pasar tiempo con su familia y cocinar platos de pasta."
Here all the things Rafa do in the free time please him and make him like them, why the verb "gustar" is not in plurar, since there are more than one inf. verb, thought gustan makes more sense. Could you plesae help me out.
What are the rules for conjucating "acabe de"? Is it:
yo: acabo detu: acababas deel/ella/ud: acaba denosotros: acababamos devosotros: ?ellas/ellos/uds: acababan de
RE" ¿Eres de Inglaterra?
Are you from England? (you=tú)
Hello, I hope you and the team are all doing well and keeping healthy!I have a question on the above:I'm suppose that means are you a native of England. But let's suppose that person came from England, but the person was visiting England and coming from there, would he/she still say:" Soy de Inglaterra"? Or would he/she have to totally rephrase it, and explain that they were visiting. How would you then state that you're from England, as you came from there.Thank you,NicoleHola a todos
I just found this sentence on Kwiziq:
'He estado de viaje y me ha encantado todo'
So, with de I guess roughly this means 'I have been doing travelling'
But please can someone explain...
1) The differences between using 'he estado de viajar' vs 'he estado viajando'?
2) And can we use 'he estado de +infinitive' with all verbs?
Saludos
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