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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,099 questions • 9,985 answers • 1,047,034 learners
Hola,
El título de este ejercicio indica que el nombre del rey mago es "Melchior" pero el texto usa una ortografía diferente de "Melchor."
¿Hay una diferencia?
Saludos
John
Hola Inma,
is there a difference between proceso y procedimiento or these words are interchangeable?
Muchas gracias!
Ελισάβετ
In the example La pájaro vuela sobre tu cabeza, why is it "tu" cabeza. I thought when talking about body parts and clothing we should use the definite articles rather than the possessive adjectives.
A su vecino le robaron la moto el otro día.
(Le) robaron la moto el otro día a su vecino.
They stole his neighbour's bike the other day.
My brain wants to translate this as:
The other day they stole the bike for his neighbor. (su=his, her, your, its, their)
My point being that I think of the indirect object pronoun (le) as to/for him/her your/it
The word "for" being the key point that confuses me in this case, I would guess.
I would think the sentence would use "de" and be "Robaron el moto el otro día de su vecino." and not have the indirect object pronoun.
Help please!
This lesson says:
"In Spanish, to express that someone "would have [done something]" in the past, we use the auxiliary verb haber.
Haber [ìn the conditional simple] + participle of main verb"
However wouldn't you use the perfect conditional to say "would have"?
I am curious of the "la he" / "las he" used in a few examples. In what lesson is that discussed? Thank you.
I can say "I like white wine" and also "I prefer white wine". Is it the same in Spanish? - I know there's a difference (i.e. comparison vs general) and wondering how similar it is to the English usage (which can be subtle at times).
In the Kwiz at the bottom, "usteden" is used. What is this form? I have heard of vosotros for "you all", or "ustedes" for "you" when speaking to a group. But "usteden" is new to me. Can you clarify?
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