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5,773 questions • 9,426 answers • 939,202 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,773 questions • 9,426 answers • 939,202 learners
Hola,
I have not seen this type of construction before which i think translates as "Settling here ........" Is it just something common in Spanish that we learn as we go along or is there a lesson about it?
Another point .... would it be possible to get translations of the weekly lessons underneath the final transcript when the exercise is finished, so that we can check our understanding?
John
Why am I marked wrong because of this?
They should drink quite a lot.They must have drunk quite a lot.They actually drank quite a lot.They couldn't drink a lot.Sorry to be persnickety--"drunk" is only an adjective in English, never a verb. "Have drank" is the correct form.
In one of the examples above, shouldn't it be admitiría? Or the translation should be She didn't admit
No admitía que vosotras estuvieseis enfadadas con vuestros maridos.
She wouldn't admit that you were angry with your husbands.
Hola,
In a Spanish show, a character says to another:
Tú no sales de aquí hasta que no me traigas a ese chico.
Which I believe roughly translates to "You are not to go out until you bring this guy to me." If that is the case, could you explain why the subordinate sentence would be negated with no. Wouldn't it be:
Tú no sales de aquí hasta que me traigas a ese chico.
Thank you for your help!
Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark.
However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?
Thanks.
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