Adjectives and adverbs interchangeable in Spanish?I have had this problem for a while, and no Spanish speaker can readily explain it:
In English, an adjectival form can only describe a noun; for a verb, you must use the adjectival form. The only exception of which I know is "I am well." Because so few English speakers have good grammar these days, "I am good" has become a colloquialism that is acceptable. But one can never say "I cook good" or "He lives happy".
But in Spanish, I see this all the time though Spanish speakers also acknowledge the rule that adverbs, not adjectives, describe verbs. In this lesson, I just saw it again:
Espero que vivas feliz en tu apartamento nuevo.
I hope you live happily in your new flat.
Any clarification of this usage would be gratefully accepted.
Allison
In one of the above examples, "la pelicula" becomes "el peliculón", and in another "tasa" becomes "tazón". Is there a rule for when to do this gender change?
Thanks,
Marcos
This seems to me to be too ambiguous (or maybe too subtle) to be used in a lesson.
Gabriel no podía meter las llaves en la cerradura anoche.
Carlos couldn't put the keys in the keyhole last night.
Without additional information, it appears that it could be either way, depending on the reader’s interpretation.
I have had this problem for a while, and no Spanish speaker can readily explain it:
In English, an adjectival form can only describe a noun; for a verb, you must use the adjectival form. The only exception of which I know is "I am well." Because so few English speakers have good grammar these days, "I am good" has become a colloquialism that is acceptable. But one can never say "I cook good" or "He lives happy".
But in Spanish, I see this all the time though Spanish speakers also acknowledge the rule that adverbs, not adjectives, describe verbs. In this lesson, I just saw it again:
Espero que vivas feliz en tu apartamento nuevo.
I hope you live happily in your new flat.Any clarification of this usage would be gratefully accepted.
Allison
The quiz question was “muchas veces estoy triste” being translated to “I am often sad”. Why would that not be “A menudo estoy triste”?
It seems like two of the examples use the imperfect to express an intended action.
¿Ibais a Ibiza para vuestra luna de miel?
Iban de vacaciones a una isla bonita.
In English we would say this as "Were you going to go..." and "They were going to go..." We don't know if these actions were ever completed or not, so it makes sense to use the imperfect tense.
Is this a valid interpretation and use of the imperfect tense? Thanks.
Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark.
However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?
Thanks.
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