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6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,287 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,287 learners
En este frase, no entiendo por que es "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le atendería" y no "Si usted hubiera venido antes, yo le habria atendido". No entiendo por que la tradución en ingles es I would have served you y no I would serve you.... Help!
This asked if this was correct. I put no as mar is a masculine noun, but this was marked as incorrect. The dictionary states it is a masculine noun. On the explanation this it states that it can be feminine in a poetic sense. This phrase is not in my opinion poetic but an observation.
Can you please explain this. Thanks
Si viniérais, os ________ una paella riquísima. If you guys came, we would make a delicious paella for you.HINT: Using the "nosotros" form, conjugate "hacer" in El Condicional Simple
Because the first clause is in the past, wouldn't the second be in the contitional perfect?
Si viniérais, os habríamos hecho una paella?
We wouldn't say "We would like to make a toast". Best English would be direct translation: "We would like to propose a toast"
We might say: "Let's make a toast" but "we would like to make a toast" is not natural English.
This lesson says:
"In Spanish, to express that someone "would have [done something]" in the past, we use the auxiliary verb haber.
Haber [ìn the conditional simple] + participle of main verb"
However wouldn't you use the perfect conditional to say "would have"?
I can say "I like white wine" and also "I prefer white wine". Is it the same in Spanish? - I know there's a difference (i.e. comparison vs general) and wondering how similar it is to the English usage (which can be subtle at times).
In the example La pájaro vuela sobre tu cabeza, why is it "tu" cabeza. I thought when talking about body parts and clothing we should use the definite articles rather than the possessive adjectives.
Hi room, experts
Please explain translation 'its difficult for corruption to disappear from the country' in Spanish 'Es difícil que la corrupción desaparezca del país'.
I understand your translation but I am wondering, can this also be written in the indicative.
For example could I not also write, 'Es difícil por la corrupción de desaparecer del país'?
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