Spanish language Q&A Forum

"En su tiempo libre a Rafa le gusta jugar al golf, pescar, leer libros, ir al cine, ver series, pasar tiempo con su familia y cocinar platos de pasta."

Here all the things Rafa do in the free time please him and make him like them, why the verb "gustar" is not in plurar, since there are more than one inf. verb, thought gustan makes more sense. Could you plesae help me out.

I noticed these two sentences used the preposition 'a' instead of 'que' in these sentences. Is there a reason why? 

Las ventas fueron superiores a los costes.

The sales were higher than the expenses.

Los costes fueron inferiores a las ventas.

The expenses were lower than the sales.

Hi guys! Love the site! I've been taught that Meter is to "put into", and Poner "to place" and are supposedly not interchangeable, so why did you use poner to "put the flowers IN the water"? (Always good to know these things! :-) )

Hi Inma,

Here's the test question:

¿Vienes a la Fiesta?  No puedo. _____el partido en la tele.(Are you coming to the party? I can't.  I am planning to watch the match on TV.)   

Answer:  Iba a ver.

Everytime this question comes up, I get it wrong because the English translation " I am planning to watch the team on T.V."  Hence I answer iré a ver. 

Would the english translation rather be " I was planning to watch the team on T.V.

Another question.  Is there a difference between  iré a ver VERSUS voy a ver? I am aware one is future tense and the other is present tense. 

Thank you.

I have read all the correspondance around this lesson, but my problem has not surfaced. It is this:-

if 'mirar' is intransitive and needs pronoun 'a' before inanimate objects, then I don't have a problem. If, however, it is transitive and takes a direct object ( of inanimate objects ) then I cannot see why there is an indirect  object pronoun at all. Can you explain?

i read from one of the question asked before in one of the grammar lesson, and it is confirmed that llamar is a transitive verb and takes direct object but comes with a preposition A because it is personal a. llamar + a + alguien.

But then i also came across llamar a la puerta for example. why is there a preposition A?

or did i get it wrong that it is not personal A but a fixed expression with llamar + a + any direct objects?

voy a llamar a Juan = voy a llamarlo, voy a llamar a la puerta = voy a llamarla.

But i did come across sentences that do not use preposition a for llamar.

le llamo idiota a juan  - i called juan idiot. is this correct?

Other than calling people directly like telephoning or shouting for them, we can also call them names. is this where there wont be preposition A?

sorry for my errors as i am still not familiar with using the llamar verb.

Hi, thanks for your help. What does “sin un duro” mean?

Shirley.