Could you tell me why it is subjuntivo that follows the expression:
"No dudo de que..."?
The full extract is:
"Antes de dormir pásabamos un buen rato por el taller del Belga, un anciano pavoroso que apareció en Aracataca después de la primers guerra mundial, y no dudo de que fuera belga por el recuerdo que tengo de sus acento aturdido y sus nostalgias de navegante" ("VIVIR PARA CONTARLA" by Gabriel García Márquez)
Doesn't "No dudo de que..." imply certainty?
This is something the grammarians still differ in their explanations.
As a general rule, phrases that imply certainty will trigger the indicative, and phrases that imply doubt trigger the subjunctive, as you know. This would mean that "no dudo de que" triggers the indicative, but the truth is it accepts both. The most common explanation for deciding which one to use is that the indicative is used to "declare" and the subjunctive to "detach from the truth so the speaker doesn't commit to it". In the text from G.García Márquez, when he writes "y no dudo de que fuera belga..." the use of "fuera" is implying some detachment from the truth for the speaker, meaning that even if he knew it because he had reasons to believe it, somehow he doesn't want to declare it a hundred per cent.
I hope this helps
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