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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,818 questions • 9,526 answers • 952,790 learners
¿Cuál es la diferencia entre "tener el pelo claro" y "ser rubio"?
Usually the conditional tense adds "would" to the verb. E.g. comería, would eat; habría, would have; vendría, would come, etc. But "should" is not the same as "would". It implies a duty or obligation, whereas "would" does not.
So debería etc. seems to be an exception because it means "should" not "would"!
I [incorrectly] made "mejor" plural - to agree with "they" - by writing: "Eran aún mejores que en mis sueños". [Or could it also be correct with "mejores"?]
Perhaps we have to regard "mejor" as an adverb here, not as an adjective - so we should not make it plural - despite the fact that (in English) it looks like a complement of the verb "eran".
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) seems to confirm that^ by giving the example "Aquí estamos mejor" = "We're better [off] here".
It seems that we need to be careful in deciding whether a particular word in Spanish should be treated as an adverb rather than an adjective. In particular, we should avoid the temptation of trying to judge it according to its grammatical context in English. [A well known example of that, is of course "Está bien"].
In the sentence "Él me trata tan especialmente como tú." why is tú used here rather than a ti - Él me trata tan especialmente como a ti. I'm assuming it is the function of the word as which is what here a preposition or a conjunction. As an aside what might be the most accurate English in this sentence, especially or specially?
Hola todos
It's a new year and I'm determined to master the subjunctive this year. So, I just got this question in a Kwiziq test
"Conjugate the vosotros form of "hablar" in El Presente Subjuntivo (Don´t talk to me like that) : No me ___ así."
Now, I did get the correct answer by selecting 'habléis'. However, strictly speaking, doesn't this answer represent the negative imperative rather than the present subjunctive? Of course both give the same answer and I understand there are crossovers in conjugations between the two tenses. But can the two have the same meaning in this case?
mi hermana tiene 26 anos
es rubia
su cara es rodonda
tiene los ojos azules
y la nariz pequena
sus orejas tambien son pequenas
y tiene una sonrisa muy bonita
ella no es muy alta
pero es delagda
tiene una cintura estrecha
y piernas muy largas
sus pies son pequenos
mi herman es my elegante
siempre viste ropa bonita
sobre su personalidad puedo decir que ella es muy alegre,
carinosa
divertida
y trabajdora
"It can be used in the singular, for example se tarda, se tardó or in the plural, for example se tardan, se tardaron. Se tardó dos horas en llegar. = Se tardaron dos horas en llegar. It took two hours to arrive."
So both examples mean precisely the same thing? Is there a situation where the meaning would change?
Hi!
I noticed that when writing that "you" like something, you change the tú form from "vas a" to "va a" even though you are writing that "you" will like something. For example, the sentence "you are going to like this therapy" is written as "Te va a gustar...." instead of "Te vas a gustar..." even though you are not instructed to write in usted form. Could someone please explain why this is?
Thank you!
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