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6,099 questions • 9,986 answers • 1,047,172 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,099 questions • 9,986 answers • 1,047,172 learners
Hi Inma,
Here's the test question:
¿Vienes a la Fiesta? No puedo. _____el partido en la tele.(Are you coming to the party? I can't. I am planning to watch the match on TV.)
Answer: Iba a ver.
Everytime this question comes up, I get it wrong because the English translation " I am planning to watch the team on T.V." Hence I answer iré a ver.
Would the english translation rather be " I was planning to watch the team on T.V.
Another question. Is there a difference between iré a ver VERSUS voy a ver? I am aware one is future tense and the other is present tense.
Thank you.
hola,
both tiempo and estacion are used for season, why?
Also, entonces and asi are bothed used to say "so". When do you use each?
Finnally for yo suelo, what verb is suelo conjugated from to mean usually?
gracias
Shouldn't it be se viste instead of viste?
Can anda and venga be used the same way? Come on!
I have also heard " anda anda!" Is that just for emphasis?
I thought it should have been una reunión de negocias but that was marked as incorrect. Is it always the case that a noun modifying another noun comes in its original form or is it a special case for "negocios"?
Newbie here: I’ve always been told that Spanish accent is usually on the penultimate vowel, and only the exceptions need an explicit tilde mark.
However, there are conjugations, like actuéis where the accent mark is on the penultimate vowel. I would have thought that the accent wasn’t needed anymore. Any place I could go to with a fuller explanation?
Thanks.
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