Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, in cases where cuál means what, is there a difference between cuál and lo que ?

Thanks !

It is indeed a great bonus that Inma speaks so clearly - Many thanks ! … Even after living in Spain for nearly 20 years, it is still often a struggle for me to understand people when they speak, particularly here in Andalusia... I suppose that means that you should be providing me with listening exercises [with a transcript] which feature 'rapid' conversation?

This lesson says:

"In Spanish, to express that someone "would have [done something]" in the past, we use the auxiliary verb haber.

Haber [ìn the conditional simple] + participle of main verb"

However wouldn't you use the perfect conditional to say "would have"?

I have had this problem for a while, and no Spanish speaker can readily explain it:

In English, an adjectival form can only describe a noun; for a verb, you must use the adjectival form. The only exception of which I know is "I am well." Because so few English speakers have good grammar these days, "I am good" has become a colloquialism that is acceptable. But one can never say "I cook good" or "He lives happy".

But in Spanish, I see this all the time though Spanish speakers also acknowledge the rule that adverbs, not adjectives, describe verbs. In this lesson, I just saw it again: 

Espero que vivas feliz en tu apartamento nuevo.

Hola,

In a Spanish show, a character says to another:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que no me traigas a ese chico.

Which I believe roughly translates to "You are not to go out until you bring this guy to me."  If that is the case, could you explain why the subordinate sentence would be negated with no.  Wouldn't it be:

Tú no sales de aquí hasta que me traigas a ese chico.

Thank you for your help!

I'm confused by the use of third person (instead of first person) of haber. Why is the sentence not "Ultimamente, me he dado por flirtear con mi jefe"?

Pati Ecuamiga