Spanish language Q&A Forum

hi room and experts

Please clarify why 'tener  + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object,  whereas  this rule does not apply in  'haber + participio cases'

For example  -  Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)

He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)

I made a couple of mistakes in my last communication. The title should have said, "the Spanish Preterito Indefinito" not "the Spanish Preterito Imperfecto. Second, the word "open" should be removed where it appears at the end of a sentence. Sorry everyone.

Is anyone else just chipping away at the Spanish lessons here hoping that one day they will understand enough to have the courage to talk to someone in Spanish?  I'm level B1 in the lessons, but probably A2 when it comes to writing, A1 when it comes to listening and A0 when it comes to converations! 
I fully understand I won't ever be fluent unless I talk with Spanish people, but I'm level C2 at making up reasons why today just isn't the day.

In one of the examples above, shouldn't  it be admitiría? Or the translation should be She didn't admit 

No admitía que vosotras estuvieseis enfadadas con vuestros maridos.
She wouldn't admit that you were angry with your husbands.

1. Could you remember these exclusively as occasions in which you are pointing at something?

2. What about using "over there" when you refer to another country?

Gracias, Ricky

¡Hola!

Could you tell me if it is indicativo or subjuntivo that  follows the expression:

¿No es cierto que...?

Regards,

Alexander