Spanish language Q&A Forum

It sounds strange to me to say Ellos fueron amigos. Isn't it better to say Ellos eran amigos, when there is no time specification?

I have had this problem for a while, and no Spanish speaker can readily explain it:

In English, an adjectival form can only describe a noun; for a verb, you must use the adjectival form. The only exception of which I know is "I am well." Because so few English speakers have good grammar these days, "I am good" has become a colloquialism that is acceptable. But one can never say "I cook good" or "He lives happy".

But in Spanish, I see this all the time though Spanish speakers also acknowledge the rule that adverbs, not adjectives, describe verbs. In this lesson, I just saw it again: 

Espero que vivas feliz en tu apartamento nuevo.

You answered a question at the bottom this section  (to Papi on April 16,            2018) and said:

This sentence could be using both "fui" and "era" depending on the the timeframe when the action happened, being more specific (preterite) or more irrelevant (imperfect).

Could you expand a bit on the "irrelevant (imperfect)" which is an interesting perspective, I hadn't come across before. 

Point in quiz being referred to:

Mi prima ________ Miss Universo. .My cousin was Miss Universe HINT: Conjugate "ser" in Pretérito indefinido

There seems to be a lot of doubt in this sentence. What would trigger only the subjunctive?

Thank you. K

¡Hola!

May I ask why is the phrase "Encantado de conocerle/te" is translated as Pleased/Nice "to meet" you in English and not Pleased/Nice "meeting" you, if the preposition "de" is followed by an infinitive verb in this phrase? 

Thanks!

El niño

Re: Sentence above: 

No, no me gusta la paella.No, I do not like paella.

In the lesson above, I was surprised to hear how the word "paella" was pronounced.  I had never heard that pronunciation.  My question is, are the letters "ae" considered a diphthong, and if so, what would be its pronunciation?

Thank you and wishing you a great day!

Nicole

From the above lesson it is not fully clear when one would use "no solo...sino" and when one would use "no solo...sino que". Is the rule similar to the one mentioned in this lesson: Difference between pero, sino and sino que in Spanish (but) whereby "If we need a different conjugated verb in the second clause after sino, then we need to add "que" after sino."?

I had this question in a test and got it right, but I thought I read somewhere that the subjunctive is suppose to have a change of subject, but it is not true in this case (creo=yo, sepa=yo).  Can you help to clarify?  Thank you.