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Let me take a look at that...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,070 questions • 9,929 answers • 1,030,347 learners
hi room and experts
Please clarify why 'tener + participio cases' must have agreement in gender and number with the noun acting as a direct object, whereas this rule does not apply in 'haber + participio cases'
For example - Tienes ya pensada la estrategia para convencer a Inés? - (show agreement)
He pintado dos habitaciones. (does not show agreement)
Good morning.
Where in the lesson does it say that the vosotros form of "sonreir" in the imperative has an accent. Would you direct me to other exceptions of the rule.
Thank you.
Can we get an option to remove hints from the tests?
For example with the following hint:
HINT: Conjugate “ser” in El Pretérito Imperfecto
There is really no point to the question, because I can easily conjugate the verb if you tell me this...the difficulty is in knowing when to use the imperfect vs the preterite.
I would also like an option to get rid of the multiple choice answers for the one or two word answers. Sometimes you can eliminate three options just based on context without actually understand the grammar that is supposedly being tested.
Right now it is too easy to get the right answer when you don't really know the topic very well.
Are you going to the hospital is translated as Va usted al hospital.
Is it acceptable to interchange the words va usted and usted va and they are both equally correct?
Number 7 does not seem right. Yo fui medico. Isn’t fui mean to go? I am confused.
Can anda and venga be used the same way? Come on!
I have also heard " anda anda!" Is that just for emphasis?
I'm very confused by the explanation regarding the use of indirect and direct object pronouns with hacer + infinitive. The lesson says that indirect object pronouns are used with intransitive verbs, but shows direct object pronouns (lo) with the intransitive verb "arrodillarse". The lesson then says that direct object pronouns are used with transitive verbs, but then shows indirect object pronouns (les) with the transitive verb "pedir (pardón)". Is this a mistake, or am I misunderstanding?
I'm also confused by the difference between the example in the lesson and the example sentence further below:
The lesson teaches:
Les ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor"
He made them apologise to the teacher.
But the examples sentences below show:
Los ha hecho pedir perdón al profesor.He made them apologise to the teacher.
I am completely confused :(
i have two questions for this one first why there is an a after venir is it coz its
equivalent to be able to ?
second why five is las not la five is a number singular thx in advance for the support gracias
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