Spanish language Q&A Forum

"En su tiempo libre a Rafa le gusta jugar al golf, pescar, leer libros, ir al cine, ver series, pasar tiempo con su familia y cocinar platos de pasta."

Here all the things Rafa do in the free time please him and make him like them, why the verb "gustar" is not in plurar, since there are more than one inf. verb, thought gustan makes more sense. Could you plesae help me out.

Hola,

I thought assumption about the past (must have + verb) was expressed by means of DEBE (Deber in El Presented) + Infinitivo Compuesto, however the following examples refute it:

Los chicos han debido de beber bastante porque huelen a alcohol.
They boys must have drunk quite a lot as they smell of alcohol.

El tren debió de llegar sobre las cuatro y media.
The train must have arrived at about four thirty.

Could you please clarify this point, because I'm feeling a bit confused 

I know for "¡Ni loca te presto dinero!" if you want to use "ni que fuera" it goes: "Ni que fuera loca. . . " but what do you replace "presto" with? i.e. "Ni que fuera loca te ___ dinero."

The question is

Será mejor que ________ sin apostar dinero.
It's better to play without gambling money.
HINT: Conjugate "jugar" in El Presente Subjuntivo.

The answer given is “juguemos”. Why not “juguéis” , “jueguen” , “juegue”  or “juegues”?

Why is it "El cartero pasa todos los días a las tres de la tarde" instead of ""El cartero pasa todos los días a las tres por la tarde"? I thought we learned that it should be en, a, or por to express a specific time of the day? 

Sometimes, when Spanish words sound similar to English words, my brain automatically connects them to English words. In this case, my brain associates varios/varias with the English word 'various'. Is this a correct assumption?

In English, various provides more clarity than the word 'some' in that it denotes small differences among the various objects that are being described. Is that the case for Spanish too?