Spanish language Q&A Forum

I don't understand why the English translations of the historical present are not in the English historical present. For example, "Venezuelan President Hugo Chavez dies in 2013." would be perfectly acceptable in a historical context. To use the past tense in the English examples is just confusing, since the point of the lesson is that the same tense exists in Spanish as well.

A great article which I thoroughly enjoyed and will watch and read a few more times. Why was the word "desgustar" used as: "bebidas para desgustar"? Is it an entendre doble somehow? Maybe disfrutar?

Why does the lesson say to use Hay with “It is foggy” but Está with “It is sunny”? I would think both would use Está  

Also the lesson says to use Hay when it is followed by a noun, but Foggy is an adjective. 

Thanks for your help!

I feel like in modern English, we don't say 'one' does something, but rather, it's expressed using 'you' in the sentence without being a personal statement or piece of advice. 

Would this be a reasonable translation/interpretation?

Se duerme mejor con la conciencia tranquila.

- One sleeps better with a clear conscience.

- You sleep better with a clear conscience. 

The second sentence is not necesarily a personal statement. It can also be said impersonally like a general statement. 

I find that when I'm speaking Spanish, I over use 'you' too much in phrases like this because the sentence structure of 'one should...' doesn't occur to me. However, I can recognize the statement is impersonal while I'm saying it. 

It would be helpful to know if this is the structure I should be using in these situations. 

PS. I'm not referring to passing the quizzes but more for the knowledge of how to use this better in real communication. 

Gracias!

Nosotras fuimos responsables de ese proyecto.
We were responsible for this project.

Shouldn't this be "este proyecto?"

Just a note that, by and large, a literal translation mostly works here as well, although the construction sounds a little English (vs. American) to me. To wit: "They will have gone to bed upon arriving at the hotel because the trip was very long" is perhaps an unusual phrasing in modern conversational (American) English, but certainly not an unintelligible one, and I think it carries the same meaning. 

A shorter sentence "mucha gente come uvas juntas" uses juntas!

Both la gente y las personas are feminine nouns. Why juntos (masculine)?

You answered a question at the bottom this section  (to Papi on April 16,            2018) and said:

This sentence could be using both "fui" and "era" depending on the the timeframe when the action happened, being more specific (preterite) or more irrelevant (imperfect).

Could you expand a bit on the "irrelevant (imperfect)" which is an interesting perspective, I hadn't come across before. 

Point in quiz being referred to:

Mi prima ________ Miss Universo. .My cousin was Miss Universe HINT: Conjugate "ser" in Pretérito indefinido