Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am confused after getting an answer wrong in a test and then reviewing the subsequent lesson.   

In a recent test, this sentence was given to complete.   "No me gusto nada hacer ejercicio _____________."  My answer was "después de comer," when in fact the answer was "después de comiendo."   

I went back to review the lesson and the lesson states that after the preposition "de" comes the infinitive form of the verb to say the "ing" form of the verb.    Now I am confused as to why my answer of "después de comer" is not correct.   When do you use the infinitive?  and when do you use the present participle (i.e. ending "ando" or "iendo") after the preposition de?

Hola,

In the introduction it states ...."all the other endings are the same as regular er verbs íste, ímos, ísteis."

Is this correct? Aren't the ending of regular er verbs iste, imos and isteis all without the accent?

Or am i missing something?

Thanks.

In another unrelated lesson, a quiz sentence states, 'No me queda mucho dinero pero tengo para dos cervezas más.'  Where does this sentence fit in the various meanings of quedar, as explained in this lesson?

¿Cuántos euros te quedan en la cartera? -Me quedan ochenta.
How many euros do you have left in your purse? -I have eighty left. 

The above is using preterite translated to present perfect. This is a subject I have some trouble understanding. Wondering if quedar is one of those examples of language that doesn't translate exactly and have to accept it as an expression used and not over think it?

In your example and in Spanish grammar is the “a ella” repetition of the indirect object “le” essential or is it an optional extention added for the sake of clarity?

Hi, 

HINT: serio = serious

Why does serio become seriecillo when it doesn't end with an e or a constant? 

Is it common in Spanish to have two words seriecilla / seriecillo that are almost similar yet so different in meaning? 

Thank you! 

Why isn't vegetales accepted for vegetables?

This asked if this was correct. I put no as mar is  a masculine noun, but this was marked as incorrect. The dictionary states it is a masculine noun. On the explanation this it states that it can be feminine in a poetic sense. This phrase is not in my opinion poetic but an observation.

Can you please explain this. Thanks

Could you also say “Me había regalado un esqueje”?