Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the phrase, ". . . y lo peor fue el viento, ya que tenía miedo . . . ," why does it use preterite (fue) and then imperfect (tenía)? Aren't they both describing the same time frame? 

de las ciudades más bonitas de España

When would I use “en”?

I´ve just learned that I can use qué+ser to definite a meaning of what is it.

Why the sentence doesn´t add ser? Thanks.

¿________ significa "presumido"?

This lesson is a little confusing because under "Examples and Resources", el Preterito Perfecto is shown, after being told above that el Preterito Indefinido is preferred in Latam.  

In the example above (Es septiembre y hace calor todavía.), todavía is placed at the end of the sentence and not before/after the verb.  Is it a less common (spoken) sentence structure?

I use the app SpanishDict to help me check myself on certain concepts, especially on conjugations. For this concept, the gerund, the app uses past and present participles. Frankly, I did not receive a whole hell of a lot of instruction when it came to the difference between a participle and a gerund when I was younger but hey, I turned out ok! I have gotten the gist but the two things don't do the same thing  in Spanish as they do in English. I asked a Spanish professor friend of mine about this and he said one of them  (I can't remember which) was the gerund and the other is the participle. Is he correct? I got a questions wrong because I typed one form but it was actually the other. Also, is SpanishDict throwing me off?