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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,814 questions • 9,522 answers • 952,384 learners
The lesson states that if the subject is the same in both clauses you would omit que and use the infinitive in the second clause. Why is the subjunctive and not the infinitive used in the following example?
Nosotros preferiríamos que fuésemos al restaurante del centro.
We'd prefer if we all went to the restaurant in the centre.This sentence was marked as incorrect:
Cuando ella abra sus regalos en navidad a menudo tiene perfume.
The english translation was that often when she opens presents she gets perfume. Doesn't that denote possibility in the future and so it should be subjunctive?
Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?
Hola. Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?
________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)
What, if any, are the circumstances in which "si" introduces a clause that is followed by the indicative mode of a verb, rather than the subjunctive mode?
I'm afraid I have to join the others on this one. This is has got to be the hardest concept I have encountered so far. I'm glad that you mentioned that if you use "nunca" or "siempre" then the verb would be in the simple past. However, that is where my understanding stops. I tried thinking about whether one is recent past (perfecto) and one is more distant but still somewhat recent (indefinido), but that is confusing and probably not correct. Thank you also for stating that this is something that is different across all the different countries. I will just keep trying and hope that something sticks at some point.
Buenas días
I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).
I saw these sentences:
La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.
La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.
I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".
Muchas gracias
la de fotos que
First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)
When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.
Now, my real question:
With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?
PS
I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.
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