por el bien de Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
You should just ask a straight up question and not try to fool us.
"hacen demostraciones en directo e imparten cursos, lo que atrae la curiosidad"
Hacer demostraciones y impartir cursos son dos cosas, y las dos cosas serían referidas de las que atrae curiosidad, no? Porque habla de 2 cosas y luego tienes que usar el singular? Gracias!
The correct answer here shows both verbs in imperfect tense. Why is using preterite in the first clause and imperfect in the second clause incorrect? The lesson shows both examples in the past tense.
Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
This is a quote from kwiziq that is supposed to be explanatory, but it does not suggest a rule to know which adjectives have this form of ending. How are we to know which adjectives have this irregularity? Why can they not just follow the regular formula?
What is the difference difference between Además and Tambien
What's the difference?
This lesson says «present tense is used to talk about the past event», which is fine, in English too it happens.
However, there is another lesson in C1, «simple future or conditional tenses are also used» to talk about the past event.
Can someone please explain when to use the present tense, and when to use simple future/conditional to talk about the past event? Or, in the same situation, present tense and future/conditional tense is inter-changeable??
I saw this verse in NVI bible.
"y no nos dejes caer en tentación, sino libranos del maligno."
Is it correct not to use 'sino que '?
I noticed these uses of salir in the examples and want to double-check if they are correct.
salir=to go out
salir de un lugar=to leave a place
salir por=to leave through
salir a infinitivo=to go do an activity
salir con alguién=to go out with someone
There may be a lesson on the different meanings of salir that I don’t know about. Thanks.
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