Spanish language Q&A Forum

Would a correct answer to this also be ¿Se deben estudiar más?

A quiz question says: "La palabra víspera tiene el tilde en la i"

Not relevant to the lesson, but I thought a tilde was the squiggle over the n (~), not the tick mark? Can it mean both?

Why is costar used without a pronoun to express something people in general find difficult, while other words DO use a pronoun to express general things, as explained in the "The impersonal se in Spanish" lesson?

Lesson - The impersonal se in Spanish:
Expressing instructions and general statements in Spanish with the impersonal se = one

I understand that some verbs are stem changing. In the example of "e" to "ie" verbs, the last "e" of the stem turns into "ie". This rule seems to be true for verbs like nevar (nieva), but why not verbs like "tener"?

How does one determine whether to use "sido" or "estado" with haber in such instances as "I have been a good person..." or "I have been seen with ..." or "I have not been trying hard to..."?

Also, with regard to "he, has, ha....etc.", is this conjugation referred to as the present perfect indicative, the past perfect indicative (preterito perfecto), or both?

Why is the first al used? I thought al meant “to the” or “at the”.  It doesn’t make sense to say, Ana loves to the man.

Thank you in advance for your help,

Kim

Why is QUERER in the subjunctive in the following sentence?    El hecho de que yo 

Couldn't you also express the last sentence like this?:

Será un día estupendo!

What, if any, are the circumstances in which "si" introduces a clause that is followed by the indicative mode of a verb, rather than the subjunctive mode?