por el bien de Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
Hola. Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?
________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)
customer: quiero un café.
me: qué tamaño?
customer: pequeño por favor.
(the coffee shop in question has creative names for its sizes, so I often hold up a cup to clarify. :p)
me, holding up a small cup: cómo esto?
my understanding is that since the phrase "like this?" doesn't contain a noun after "this," then "esto" should be used. but technically we've been talking about "el tamaño," so is "este" correct instead? I've never been able to find something explain this exact scenario. 😅
I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America. In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable). In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong). Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?
I was always told that he, has, ha were present perfect and hube, hubiste, hubo were preterite perfect. I find terminology differs from course to course - is there a standard reference that explains the conventions on naming tenses?
Darrell
Hello
I see two lesson of pedir que with subjuntivo present and imperfect, both says this way is used to ask someone to do something but i am really confused when to use present vs imperfect with pedir que.
Thanks
Davesh
It seems to me it is not always the case that se comes from a pronominal verb.
I think not when the situtation is accidental or emotional, right? So a non pronominal verb can accompany se while it is being activated buy these 2 states. In other words in,
Los niños se nos están haciendo mayores sin darnos cuenta.Our children are growing without us realising.
hacerse not here, se only comes from emotional involvement. Or is it always the case? I can see where hacerse means becoming.
Why "de donde *eres*" for informal but "de donde *es* usted" for formal?
When do you use “de bajo de” versus just “bajo” for under? Also why does lobster not have the definite article? Thanks.
Why isn't this "Pónganselo aquí en esta habitción para nosotros, por favor."?
After all, the reflexive pronoun for the third person plural imperative of poner is se.
Hola hola!
I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence
She has made many sacrifices for her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible.
However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".
She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos
Three questions:
1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?
2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?
3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?
If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.
Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.
Your thoughts would be much appreciated.
I feel trying to explain the por and para debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated :)
I have more questions though ;)
This got me thinking about the "for the benefit of":
He did it for the benefit of the company.
Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
This could also be written in English as:
He did it for the company.
Lo hizo por la empresa.
I have two more question:
4) Are the following two sentences correct?
i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.
ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.
And, finally...
5) Do they have the same meaning?
I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.
Many thanks,
Ryan
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