Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola hola!

I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence

She has made many sacrifices for her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible. 

However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".

She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos 

Three questions:

1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?

2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?

3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?

If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

Your thoughts would be much appreciated.

I feel trying to explain the por and para  debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated   :) 

I have more questions though  ;)

This got me thinking about the  "for the benefit of":

He did it for the benefit of the company.

Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

This could also be written in English as:

He did it for the company.

Lo hizo por la empresa.

I have two more question:

4) Are the following two sentences correct?

i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.

And, finally...

5) Do they have the same meaning?

I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.

Many thanks,

Ryan

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?

In the question

¡________ basura hay en esta casa!
Que mucha was an option offered that I chose and was marked wrong in favour of another option  cuánta.
Que mucha ...   translated in online dictionaries just fine.
Is there a difference ?

My native language is Swedish. In all the above examples we would also use the infinitive. If this was a course for Swedish speaking people, this lesson would be unnecessary! Is Spanish grammar generally more similar to Swedish grammar than to English grammar? I don't know, but probably not.

This was just a reflection, not a question that I expect to be answered.

Is the verb "leer" another example of a verb of perception, or is it something different? Soy bibliotecario para pregunto mis estudiantes sobre leyendo. Recientemente, pregunté un estudiante "Puedes leerlo?" Ella quiso sacar un libro en íngles, pero su ingles está abajo.  La dejé por supuesto. No soy un monstruo.  So, did I ask the right question? (And please correct any errors. I was trying to work through some skills I have been learning. Writing sentences and all that.) Gracias para esta comunidad! 

Una vez alcanzado su tamaño máximo, la larva se prepara para.....

Should this be una vez alcanzada as it refers to the feminine noun larva ?

Gracias

This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)

Would a correct answer to this also be ¿Se deben estudiar más?

I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect. 

Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied =  He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?