Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the reading, the sentence "A que no te lo imaginabas?" is translated as "Can you imagine?".  It seems like that translation is missing some nuance.  After reading through the corresponding lesson, it seems like more accurate translation would be "I bet you wouldn't have imagined it!".  Would this be accurate, or am I missing something?

For example "They are talking about the least successful novel ever written", can I say "Hablan de la novela menos exitosa jamás escrita"?

There was no mention in the article of La Cristiada, the open persecution of the Catholic Church during that time; and of the mass tortures and executions of both Catholic religious and lay people.  Perhaps an article about "Viva Cristo Rey" would be a good balance? 

I answered this as "estan pidiendo"

But the exam says the right answer is "piden". 

Isn't "estan pidiendo" more accurate answer?

I got confused with the explanation as you highlighted that ninguno  is an ind pronoun which cant be used with a noun but gave no examples of the use of the ninguno whereas the actual test question 20 is all about the correct indefinite adjective ie ninguna playa which I got wrong. As a beginner one would naturally be forgiven thinking that there is a family of masculine and feminine indefinite adjectives but this appears wrong as the "apparent masc version is ninguno  BUT it is an indefinte pronoun so would one look at a text grammar book as I could not resolve this/ Why mix up the tip on the same page??

Would it be incorrect to say, "No me gustan los tatuajes y por eso no tengo nada" instead of ninguno?