Spanish language Q&A Forum

I am currently taking lessons from a tutor from Latin American who told me that in describing past experiences you would specifically use the past perfecto-He viajado en Mexica instead of the preterito. You contradict this. I wonder if this means you can actually use either and it's just a preference.

¿Qué te parece utilizar "podrías pedir" en lugar de "podrías preguntar" en la segunda pregunta de este ejercicio?

Si quiero enviar a mi hijo a mi hermana, sí puedo decirle a mi mujer "Voy a enviarselo" pero no puedo decirle a mi hijo "Voy a enviarlete". Ambas oraciones son de forma verbo+enclítico de OI+enclítico de OD. ¿Qué hace que una sea correcta y la otra no lo sea? (Intento que se=hermana, lo=hijo, le=hermana, te=hijo.)

In the phrase, ". . . y lo peor fue el viento, ya que tenía miedo . . . ," why does it use preterite (fue) and then imperfect (tenía)? Aren't they both describing the same time frame? 

This is a helpful list.  Would you be able to add the infinitive forms, as you did with the table for the form "-yendo"?

How does one determine whether to use "sido" or "estado" with haber in such instances as "I have been a good person..." or "I have been seen with ..." or "I have not been trying hard to..."?

Also, with regard to "he, has, ha....etc.", is this conjugation referred to as the present perfect indicative, the past perfect indicative (preterito perfecto), or both?

I understand that some verbs are stem changing. In the example of "e" to "ie" verbs, the last "e" of the stem turns into "ie". This rule seems to be true for verbs like nevar (nieva), but why not verbs like "tener"?

Why is yo me sumerjo los manos wrong here ?