Spanish language Q&A Forum

In a previous question, mover was used in a present tense (Ella mueve...). However, in this quiz, mover was used in a reflexive tense (El perro se mueve). How do we know when to use or not use the reflexive tense? 

I have a question. 

Ojalá llegaran a tiempo a la estación para coger el tren que sale esta noche a las diez. (clearly referring to the future)

Here llegaran is subjunctive because of Ojala, but why is it sale (preterite) instead of saldre (future)?

Por favor ayudarme! :)

Are there any guidelines for the use of the phrase '' ''los demás'' versus ''los otros''  this? Many thanks

Why isn't this "Pónganselo aquí en esta habitción para nosotros, por favor."?

After all, the reflexive pronoun for the third person plural imperative of poner is se.

customer: quiero un café.

me: qué tamaño?

customer: pequeño por favor.

(the coffee shop in question has creative names for its sizes, so I often hold up a cup to clarify. :p)

me, holding up a small cup: cómo esto?

my understanding is that since the phrase "like this?" doesn't contain a noun after "this," then "esto" should be used. but technically we've been talking about "el tamaño," so is "este" correct instead? I've never been able to find something explain this exact scenario. 😅 

First off, a minor suggestion wrt this lesson to break the ice: ;)

When you are talking about the position of 'se', you are in fact referring to the position of BOTH 'se' and a corresponding direct object pronoun. You might want to note this in the explanations somewhere.

Now, my real question:

With a participle, does the combo of se & direct object pronoun HAVE to be attached at the end, or this is just an option? "Se la estamos decorando" and "Estamos decorandosela" are both grammatically correct and semantically equivalent, right? Or are we allowed to say "Se la estamos decorando" only because we have two verbs next to each other?

PS

I agree with the other poster who pointed out that these agglutination rules totally warrant a separate lesson.

Buenas días 

I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).

I saw these sentences:

La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.

La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.

I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".

Muchas gracias

Why is "of the mountains" not translated as "del montañas"?

Is the verb "leer" another example of a verb of perception, or is it something different? Soy bibliotecario para pregunto mis estudiantes sobre leyendo. Recientemente, pregunté un estudiante "Puedes leerlo?" Ella quiso sacar un libro en íngles, pero su ingles está abajo.  La dejé por supuesto. No soy un monstruo.  So, did I ask the right question? (And please correct any errors. I was trying to work through some skills I have been learning. Writing sentences and all that.) Gracias para esta comunidad! 

I saw this verse in NVI bible. 

"y no nos dejes caer en tentación, sino libranos del maligno."

Is it correct not to use 'sino que '?