Spanish language Q&A Forum

Buenas días 

I understand Afectar is a transitive verb, which requires a direct object (without a preposition).

I saw these sentences:

La nueva ley no afecta al pequeño empresario.

La falta de oxígeno afecta al cerebro.

I'm curious to know why these two sentences use a preposition "a".

Muchas gracias

What does it take to move from A0 to A1? I am allegedly testing at 89.91% at A0 right now and am puzzled why I am not able under to "Choose your focus" to select A1 material? It would seem for goal setting one should know what it takes to move up. Am I missing something?

In the phrase, ". . . y lo peor fue el viento, ya que tenía miedo . . . ," why does it use preterite (fue) and then imperfect (tenía)? Aren't they both describing the same time frame? 

Is the verb "leer" another example of a verb of perception, or is it something different? Soy bibliotecario para pregunto mis estudiantes sobre leyendo. Recientemente, pregunté un estudiante "Puedes leerlo?" Ella quiso sacar un libro en íngles, pero su ingles está abajo.  La dejé por supuesto. No soy un monstruo.  So, did I ask the right question? (And please correct any errors. I was trying to work through some skills I have been learning. Writing sentences and all that.) Gracias para esta comunidad! 

Could you explain the quiz quiestion that I got wrong? I chose "eso", for "I like that one" (a boligrafo). The correct answer was "ese". Yet "eso" is listed a correct option in the lesson if the object is not named in the sentence. Thanks. 

This sentence was marked as incorrect:

Cuando ella abra sus regalos en navidad a menudo tiene perfume.

The english translation was that often when she opens presents she gets perfume. Doesn't that denote possibility in the future and so it should be subjunctive?

I think the verb acabar can also be used to express finishing something. How does the use of acabar in Spanish differ when I want to say "I just..." vs. "I'm finishing..."

Why is yo me sumerjo los manos wrong here ?