Spanish language Q&A Forum

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

I have a question. 

Ojalá llegaran a tiempo a la estación para coger el tren que sale esta noche a las diez. (clearly referring to the future)

Here llegaran is subjunctive because of Ojala, but why is it sale (preterite) instead of saldre (future)?

Por favor ayudarme! :)

Hola.  Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?

________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)

In this usage, it is similar to gustar, correct?  If so, it might be helpful to add a statement indicating that, and perhaps rename the section to: Sobrarle con algo: To have more than enough with something.

When inverted verbs like gustar are taught, it would be great if they were consistently shown with "le"  throughout kwiziq  lessons to indicate an inverted verb that uses indirect object.   

Having the associated preposition that typically goes with the verb is great, too.

Thanks for considering this.

If the following is true:

Bear in mind that used as adjectives, the hundreds must agree with the noun they accompany: 

Había veinte mil trescientas personas en el concierto.

There were twenty thousand three hundred people at the concert.

Then why is the following the opposite?

Ciento is invariable and doesn't have to agree with the noun it accompanies, for example:

Ciento treinta y cinco mil casas

One hundred and thirty-five thousand houses

Hello Kwiziq team, 

In this translation exercise, would using the verb llevar in the following sentence make sense? ''Tercero, llevaré menos tiempo en mi teléfono.'' instead of ''Tercero, pasaré menos tiempo en mi teléfono'' 

Many thanks

I am currently taking lessons from a tutor from Latin American who told me that in describing past experiences you would specifically use the past perfecto-He viajado en Mexica instead of the preterito. You contradict this. I wonder if this means you can actually use either and it's just a preference.

For the last sentence, can't we use 'llevar' to talk about time spent doing something?