Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is ‘has been …ing’ sometimes el Pretérito perfecto progresivo and other times a perífrasis verbal?     eg:

Carlos lleva trabajando en ese colegio dos años.

Carlos has been working in that school for two years. 

Laura has been seeing her boyfriend secretly.

I understand that some verbs are stem changing. In the example of "e" to "ie" verbs, the last "e" of the stem turns into "ie". This rule seems to be true for verbs like nevar (nieva), but why not verbs like "tener"?

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

I have a question. 

Ojalá llegaran a tiempo a la estación para coger el tren que sale esta noche a las diez. (clearly referring to the future)

Here llegaran is subjunctive because of Ojala, but why is it sale (preterite) instead of saldre (future)?

Por favor ayudarme! :)

Pensé que "encontrarse con" significaba un encuentro planeado mientras que "encontrarse a" significaba un encuentro casual. ¿Estoy equivocado?

Hola.  Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?

________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)

In this usage, it is similar to gustar, correct?  If so, it might be helpful to add a statement indicating that, and perhaps rename the section to: Sobrarle con algo: To have more than enough with something.

When inverted verbs like gustar are taught, it would be great if they were consistently shown with "le"  throughout kwiziq  lessons to indicate an inverted verb that uses indirect object.   

Having the associated preposition that typically goes with the verb is great, too.

Thanks for considering this.