Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why was "partido" (for "game") the correct usage in the first part of the last sentence, but then "juego" (for "game") was correct in the latter part of that same sentence?

Pati Ecuamiga

Can you use estar para + noun? e.g. Miguel no está para bromas

In the phrase, ". . . y lo peor fue el viento, ya que tenía miedo . . . ," why does it use preterite (fue) and then imperfect (tenía)? Aren't they both describing the same time frame? 

For the last sentence, can't we use 'llevar' to talk about time spent doing something? 

This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)

Hi, in English, "Pon la mesa." would be translated as "Set the table," not "Lay the table."

In another lesson titled "Como, cuando, donde, quien with indicative or subjunctive in Spanish," it states that "Hablaré con ella cuando llegue a casa" translates to "I will speak to her whenever she arrives home." The term "whenever" implies uncertainty, suggesting that we do not know when she will arrive and indicating a future context. However, in this lesson, the sentence "Cuando vaya de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedaré en el hotel Olimpia" only implies a future context without conveying the sense of uncertainty as in the previous example ("whenever she arrives"). Therefore, I am curious: does "cuando" + present subjunctive mean "when" or "whenever"? Both examples refer to the future.

There has to be a way to make this stuff stick, and not make me fall asleep in the process. What can I do? I've my final on Monday so I need any help I can get.