th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
I wonder why a "to" is shown after "to tend." Since the examples have an infinitive after a conjugated "tend," it seems the extra "to" is superfluous.
Que son otras comidas y bebidas tipicas de paragauy?
"Le hemos explicado a ella el problema." Seems redundant. Is it a special case, or a constant rule?
¿Se quita la s del imperativo de nosotros cuando "selo" lo sigue? Por ejemplo: mostremosselo o mostremoselo
Hola! Necesito un poco de ayuda con una frase. No entiendo porque en esta frases ''A continuación, agregue tomates triturados, alcaparras, aceitunas, una hoja de laurel y el bacalao desmenuzado a la sartén'' decimos ''a la sartén'' en lugar de ''en la sartén''. Gracias! :-)
I still don't understand why "usted no asistió a la fiesta" is wrong.
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
elija las construcciones que mejor se adapten a contexto de la frase: (ir a +infinitivo,pensar +infinitivo, presente, futuro)
1.te Lo juro - siempre ........... a tu lado, incluso dentro de 30 años.
2.Qué........ el viernes, porque no veo que tengas ningún plan concreto.
3.qué edad crees que tiene la sra. nowakowa? creo que .......... unos 45, pero no estoy seguro.
4. en julio .............. a la playa con toda la familia, ya hemos reservado una casa de campo y comprado los biletes.
I need to have my eyes tested. The correct answer is "Me necesitan hacer una revisión de ojos." But for some reason that just sounds odd to me. I could understand "Me revisáron los ojos" as meaning "I got my eyes checked" -- something that got done to me by some un-named third party. But it just sounds weird to say "me necesitan" something. I guess because the other examples deal with having something done to me, and this example relates to the third party have a state of mind or need. Is this format with necesitar common?
The yo example given sounds like quipo rather than quepo? Is that generally how it is pronounced? I noticed the yo is not standard and more like jo. Are these regionally differences?
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