th difference between hace -v- desde haceA valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
In regard to "In Spain, there is a large family of potters" has the hint: "put "large" in front of "family", potter = alfarero/a".
The first hint seems a little misleading. Shouldn't we use "familia grande" and not "gran familia" if we are translating large family since it describes the size of the family rather than the quality/inherent characteristic of greatness of the family?
how do you know when to add the "que" or is it interchangeable?
wow, thanks for the good C1 dictation with interesting content and decent narration speed to practice dictation.
I was always told that he, has, ha were present perfect and hube, hubiste, hubo were preterite perfect. I find terminology differs from course to course - is there a standard reference that explains the conventions on naming tenses?
Darrell
I saw this verse in NVI bible.
"y no nos dejes caer en tentación, sino libranos del maligno."
Is it correct not to use 'sino que '?
A valuable lesson! But can you please explain the difference in the use of "hace" and "desde hace"? It seems that "hace" means "ago":
Lo compré hace tres semanas. - I bought it three weeks ago.
And that "desde hace" means "for": Lo tengo desde hace tres semanas. - I’ve had it for three weeks.
However I keep coming across examples where either "desde hace" or "hace" can mean both "for" or "ago". Does it depend on context as to which one means "for" or "ago" or are they interchangeable?
It seems that translation is dependent upon interpretation:
"que no saldrá del cajón y le saldrán telerañas" translates as "which won't leave the drawer and it leaves with cobwebs" BUT is interpreted to mean "which will stay in the drawer gathering cobwebs".
I note that in Mexico, official documents have to be translated "literally" but in the case above, that really wouldn't make much sense! How far can one go in interpreting versus translating?
xx
la rodilla = the knee
los ojos = the eyes
tengo fiebre = I have a fever
la receta médica = the presciption
la enfermera = the nurse
el consultorio médico = the doctor's office
la medicina = the medicine
la farmacia = the farmacy
el farmacéutico = the farmacist (m)
la farmacéutica - the farmacist (f)
fiebre = fever
la ambulancia = the ambulance
el hospital = the hospital
me duele = It hurts...
"a pesar de que" is not wrong. I think your system should be fixed.
-r
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level