Request for explanation of use of definite articlesI'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:
[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."
[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."
Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.
Thank you,
Pati Ecuamiga
there is this sentence = the deceased were only remembered on November 1st.
the answer is = solo se recordaba a los difuntos el primero de noviembre.
But is using acordarse acceptable as well?
= solo se acuerdaba ?
second question is that, for a few years = unos pocos años or pocos años.
can we use unos cuentos años or un par de años?
i do not understand why one is preferred over the other.
by the way, the audio seems to have some problems as i cant play it.
thanks
Is "ll" pronounced "ya?"
What about "llegar a ser" and "tranformarse"? I would like to know the correct usage of these. Thank you.
I'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:
[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."
[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."
Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.
Thank you,
Pati Ecuamiga
I thought it stated that ninguna or ninguno could not be used with a nouns??
The test question is:
She feels that she is not progressing much at work.The answer is siente. This doesn't seem correct because:1. it is not followed by a noun
2. It describes a complex subjective feeling
I incorrectly answered "para" because there was a specific time of day in the sentence. I am thinking that was not correct if this translates (loosely) as "sometime in the morning I eat breakfast at 9am". So a/en/por would be correct for this?
Would it be more correct to change this sample sentence:
"Puede que yo haya sido un poco brusca, pero tenía que decir la verdad."
Vs.
"Puede que yo haya ESTADO un poco brusca....."? \
Thanks for your input.
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