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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,928 questions • 9,684 answers • 979,378 learners
¿Por qué se usa más que en vez de más de? 15 minutos es un número...
Based on this list, is it safe to say that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, and therefore, -AR and -ER verbs do not have this possibility. If so, it might be helpful to put a note at the top of this list that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, unlike E>IE which can occur in -AR, -ER, and -IR verbs.
It seems to me that this "HINT" is misplaced. The question seems clearly to be an if/conditional expression so what exactly is the point of the "wish/intention in the present"??
the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.
but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.
please correct me if I am wrong.
Este verano mis circunstancias personales me han impedido viajar fuera. Porque no podemos usar el préterito aquí ? El marco de tiempos es el verano que es más largo de un mes.
Kevin
Excellent having these examples of pleasantries all in one place.
The kwiziq page "Ser vs Estar in Spanish: Using ser in Spanish (not estar) to talk about time, days, dates and seasons" (Ser vs Estar in Spanish: Using ser in Spanish (not estar) to talk about time, days, dates and seasons) says
Hoy es lunes. = Today is Monday. ("Today" is singular.)
but
Son las tres de la tarde. = It's three o'clock in the afternoon. ("It" is plural.)
Why are these different?
No se entra simplemente en Mordor.
I think my translation of Boromir's famous line is probably ok, but whether any Spanish speakers talk like that might be a question.
¿Ambas son correctas?
1. Solo escuche como toco.
2. Solo escuche cómo toco.
Gracias de antemano
My bad, it just wasn’t clear. Would help is the form structure in the first part would read something like: Haber (past) + estado + present participle
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