Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,071 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,071 learners
Ellos no _la dejaban_______ pasar. They wouldn't let her through.
it seems like luego de is the only difference between LA and Europe spainish?
Is it safe to think that:
Haber tenido = sustantivo
Habiendo tenido = adverbio
Habiendo tenido ese accidente, depende de su pareja.
Haber tenido ese accidente lo hizo dependiente de su pareja.
It it not constructive for my learning, that I get wrong answers in my tests, when I use European Spanish, because the tests sometimes use European and sometimes Latin American. It is confusing. And from a learning perspective not efficient
It would be so much nicer if one didn't need to scroll up and down the page during the exercise. Surely by resizing some of the components on the screen it should be possible to dispense with the need to scroll between each segment of the exercise, no?
Of course, if a cell phone is used that might cause more scrolling etc but on a 14" laptop screen it should be easy enough to presnet a page that's more concise . . .
It would be nice to have translation at the end.
Hi,
Would this be acceptable?
Le apasionan las películas de los 50 a María
And, if so, is it commonly used?
Many thanks
"Tu coche no es muy nuevo aunque funcione/funciona estupendamente. (Your car is not very new although it works beautifully.)"
I chose the subjunctive "funcione" here because both the speaker and the listener would know about the car. But this was marked wrong. Why would the indicative be correct?
PS I just read your answer below that the speaker is simply making a declaration. In that case, how do we distinguish this from the case of the speaker stating shared information? It seems that both answers could be correct depending on how one interprets the speaker. This makes it hard to know which answer the system considers to be correct.
Why is there a ‘por’ after pagar in the first example and not in the second?
No voy a aceptar que pagues por todo.
Deja que él pague las cervezas.Find your Spanish level for FREE
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