Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello!  I wrote "lo pasarán bien" instead of "se divertirán mucho" and I believe the feedback advised me to use the verb in the reflexive form ("se lo pararán bien"). In the past,  I had encountered "pasarlo bien" as meaning "to have a good time" without using "se."  Can you please clarify?  Thanks so much.

In the listening exercise is the phrase "para que la casa esté fresquita."

On the Futuro simple page (https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/revision/glossary/verb-tense-mood/futuro-simple) I couldn't find any page for "estar" in the future tense.

Is "esté" the 1st person singular of estar in futuro simple?
Or does it come from a different word?

Thanks!

What is the indirect object pronoun for

A Javier ya a Sara ____

One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).

The choices include c) salgan and d) hayan salido.  Aren't both of these subjunctive? The correct answer was c), salgan. I read through the lesson fairly thoroughly and don't see why hayan salido would not be correct as well. What am I missing? Thanks!

I understand except for the last word "queráis    ".  I was expecting to see " queréis   " for the "you want" at the end.

Looking up queráis, I see that it is the present subjunctive and have read that it is used if there is a change in the subject.

I can't see a change in subject. The first part of the sentence has "you" as subject ans so does the second part.

I expect that I've missed something crucial here so please help me to understand.

Thanks.