Spanish language Q&A Forum

One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).

I understand except for the last word "queráis    ".  I was expecting to see " queréis   " for the "you want" at the end.

Looking up queráis, I see that it is the present subjunctive and have read that it is used if there is a change in the subject.

I can't see a change in subject. The first part of the sentence has "you" as subject ans so does the second part.

I expect that I've missed something crucial here so please help me to understand.

Thanks.

Yup.  Makes no sense at all.  I also watched videos on youtube for "por v. para."  Incomprehensible.  Pretty soon, I will shelve Spanish.  I have gotten to the point where it is a reality that I will not achieve fluency or really go beyond the basic, "Quiere sal?"  

Hello!  I wrote "lo pasarán bien" instead of "se divertirán mucho" and I believe the feedback advised me to use the verb in the reflexive form ("se lo pararán bien"). In the past,  I had encountered "pasarlo bien" as meaning "to have a good time" without using "se."  Can you please clarify?  Thanks so much.