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6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,426 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,118 questions • 10,018 answers • 1,054,426 learners
I see oenegés as the original transcript - but wouldn't it be O.N.G. like the acronym in English?
Why is the answer Que & not La cual?
Thankyou
There are a number of good questions below about the use of the preterite vs the imperfect. There is some confusion about the speaker choosing to bend the rules in order to express an action in a certain way. This is a very useful topic and might be a good lesson of its own, "When the speaker bends the rules for a specific reason".
Below is the text from the lesson explaining your options with "por si/por si acaso". All of the examples use the imperfect subjective, but the fact that was the only option wasn't really clear until I read through the comments/questions.
From the Lesson: They introduce a subordinate clause expressing a condition. They can be followed by the subjunctive or the indicative.
I don't understand how the text is "periphrasis" - in a roundabout way. How might it have been written other than the way it was?
Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive?
Hola!
I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:
"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel.
She sent a present to Miguel."
In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.
While I wrote eres, it was marked incorrect and es being correct.
Just wondering on why?
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