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Getting that for you now...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,152 learners
No question....just a comment.
This is the kind of exercise I have been searching for! Thank you. By the way, I love your accent. As a beginning Spanish learner, it is easier for me to understand you than some of the other online teachers that I hear. I am curious....is Spanish your native language? I hope that someday I reach your level of fluency:)
I like the example Ellas trabajaron hasta tarde ayer because it is more clear than They worked late yesterday. Is it incorrect to say Ellas trabajaron tarde ayer (without "hasta")?
As an aside, I would never write "They worked late yesterday," because the tonal emphasis given to "late" and "yesterday" conveys subtle differences of meaning.
Could you please explain tocar fits into one of the rules. Is it her turn to get the strict teachers?
Siempre me tocan los profesores estrictos.
What is the difference between camarero and camarera
Hola Team Kwiziq,
Is it incorrect to place the No in a No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.
However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado". I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?
How do you know when to use definite articles after the preposition "de"? For instance "la influencia de la globalización" or "la vida de las mujeres"? Why not just "la influencia de globalización" or "la vida de mujeres"? In this article on "de", Using the preposition "de" in Spanish with nouns for description , none of the examples have a definite article after de.
Correct sentence in English should read...
It would be better if you talked to the lawyer first
I would like to ask exactly the same question as Benhur
this is 'to him' which is to me should us le not lo.
Don't bother answering, no one ever answers me here anyway
All the examples have nouns of the same gender/number on both ends of the sentence. What if it was "Maria es igual de alt_ que los gemelos"? Is it "alta" because Maria, or is "altos" because "los gemelos"?
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