once again gustar!Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
Hello! Thank you for this wonderfully clear explanation of the accidental se. I noticed that in several examples that are translated with a possessive adjective in English, a definite article is used in Spanish. For example, "Se me rompió EL reloj ayer" is translated as "MY watch broke (accidentally) yesterday. I have several questions about this. First, would it be presumed in this sentence that it is MY watch? Second, would it ever be correct to say "Se me rompió MI reloj ayer"? What if I wanted to say that I broke my favorite watch (e.g., modifying reloj): Would it still be "Se me rompió el reloj favorito"? Finally, if I wanted to specify that it was someone else's watch: "Se me rompió el reloj de mi mejor amiga"? Thank you in advance for clarifying. This is a challenging topic for me!
Can one also say “Quizás estoy enamorándome” instead of “Quizás me estoy enamorando”? Which is more appropriate or spoken?
why is my answer to this question wrong? ________ votos.
Forty-one thousand votes.Cuarenta y un mil (correct answer)cuarentiún mil (my answer)
In view of the explanation of "ir" vs. "irse" in this lesson, how would one contrast "irse" vs. "salir"
Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
¡Que me dejes en paz!¡Dejarme en paz!
Hi, is “Dejarme en paz” also correct? Gracias, Shirley.?
Just want to draw attention to my unanswered question below.
and why are you talking about adjective.
Soy mexicana. means a human and I thing should be a noun. In dictionary it has as noun and when noun el or la is in front. So how am i suppose to know neighbor is female?libanéslibaneselibanadalibanesa
In the sentence "He usually participates..." the hint given was to use solar + inf, however, the answer given by Kwiziq for that phrase was "Normalmente participar... Then, in the sentence "He usually wins medals" again the "hint" was to use "solar + inf" --- and the Kwiziq answer as "suele ganar..."
What was the translation of "usually" different in those two cases even though the "hint" provided was the same?
Pati Ecuamiga
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