Spanish language Q&A Forum

Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...? 

If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂 

Hi,

I am also a little confused by this lesson.  I accept that they must be used as written but as the former modifies an adjective and the other a verb, how does this relate to the sentence above?  Do they both relate in different ways to the second part of the sentence?  Also, although they have the same translation, is there any difference to a Spanish speaker?

I need to understand when to apply each so that I don't make a mistake.

Gracias y saludos,

Colin

Why ot is duro, not dura? Duro for trabajo??

Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive? 

When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?

Regarding this quiz question: 

Tengo estos dos pares de botas, ¿________prefieres?  

The answer is “cuáles” which means that “par” is plural, and not singular as in English. Is this correct? In general, when do we think of groups as plural?

 Also, how does this affect general usage? Do we say, “los par son bonitos”? Thanks.

Hi,

The translation given for the above is 'You apologised to me'.

I thought it meant 'You asked me for forgiveness', because You were doing the asking.  Would 'apologised' not be a different word?

I know that I may translating more literally, but I am I completely wrong?

Saludos,

Colin

Hi

Could the above sentence be written without 'sobre'?  As it would then be similar to the English sentence.  If not what difference does sobre make to the meaning of the sentence?

Best regards,

Colin

I assume in the example above salir, the infinitive is not used with después because después is being used as adjective not as a proposition?