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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,136 learners
It might be helpful to point out how an infinitive is used to express what in English a gerund might be used for (Sorry, I know that's a horrible sentence.) To reference the quiz question, "conducir" is used for the concept "driving." As an English speaker, that is strange and it was not apparent right away what was going on.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
Why the "a" in "se llama a Honduras la Republica" . . . ?
A good, easy read, very well-narrated
Why do you use the definitive article with "cumplir los deseos", but not with "con humildad y esperanza" ?
I saw it in spain and "IT WAS WONDERFUL". Shouldn't it be in Imperfecto because we are kind of giving description here of how it was. But it was marked wrong. It was "fue marvillosos" . Please answer???
When does the -o ending in the third person singular of the pretérito indefinido get a tilde en when does it not? P.e. "he spoke" = habló, but "she said" = dijo. Has it something to do with regular and irregular verbs?
For this question:
"El guiso solo necesita una pizca de sal. No pongas ____ "
I couldn't decide whether it should be "tantas" or "tanta" because it wasn't clear to me at all whether the pronoun is referring to "una pizca" or "sal". If I recall correctly I put "tantas", attempting to agree with "una pizca" but it was the wrong answer. Is it possible that both might be acceptable in real world speech because of that ambiguity, or am I missing some clear difference?
(e.g. in English "This stew only needs one pinch of salt. Don't put too many" would sound a bit wrong, but technically would be correct for the same reason, in my opinion. Of course you'd usually hear "This stew only needs *a* pinch of salt. Don't put too much.". While salt is an uncountable noun (in most contexts), "pinch" is, of course, not!)
Hi, a comment, the meaning of por que would be clearer by using the literal English translation. “Some women fight so that their work rights are recognized”. The English used here translates into Algunas mujeres luchan por el reconocimiento de sus derechos laborales. Shirley.
When referring to objects, would you always use 'el' instead of 'lo'?
Why doesn't "Lo de estilo victoriano me parece más valioso" work?
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