How can this be a future idea?Bear in mind that sometimes it is difficult to know whether the speaker is using the subjunctive to convey a future idea or a shared information. Have a look again at this example:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
There are two possibilities here:
the speaker is thinking that it might snow later (but even so, nonetheless, he is taking the dog for a walk)
the speaker and the listener both know that it is snowing at that moment of speaking (but even so / nonethelesss, he is going to take the dog for a walk), so it is a background/shared information.
In this sentence, how can one say "aunque este nevando" and be speaking about the future? This seems like it would have to be an instance of shared information, right?
Bear in mind that sometimes it is difficult to know whether the speaker is using the subjunctive to convey a future idea or a shared information. Have a look again at this example:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
There are two possibilities here:
the speaker is thinking that it might snow later (but even so, nonetheless, he is taking the dog for a walk)
the speaker and the listener both know that it is snowing at that moment of speaking (but even so / nonethelesss, he is going to take the dog for a walk), so it is a background/shared information.
In this sentence, how can one say "aunque este nevando" and be speaking about the future? This seems like it would have to be an instance of shared information, right?
What are "baleadas" por favor? Y un "tapado"?
It it not constructive for my learning, that I get wrong answers in my tests, when I use European Spanish, because the tests sometimes use European and sometimes Latin American. It is confusing. And from a learning perspective not efficient
I answered: yo no dije esa palabra. Why is that marked as incorrect
Why are these two sentences different? One uses "para comprar" and the other just "comprar." I want to understand the rule that allows you to omit "para" before an infinitive.
1. Le costó 5 dólares comprarlo de nuevo.
2. Él necesita 5 dólares para comprarlo.
Hi Inma
Am I right to assume that these essentially translate into English as the same thing? Otherwise, could you explain any other differences in meaning that might exist?
1) Su avión ha debido retrasarse
2) Su avión debe haberse retrasado
AND that adding 'de' also makes no difference to the meaning (other than maybe 'strengthening' the assumption as we learned about here: Spanish modal verb Deber versus Deber de (obligation and assumption))?
Saludos
This is NOT AO level crap.
Are you Duh-lingo or something?
Who dreams up these "tests"? The jerk who runs Duh-lingo? Waldo?
Hace calorcito???
How do you know when to use definite articles after the preposition "de"? For instance "la influencia de la globalización" or "la vida de las mujeres"? Why not just "la influencia de globalización" or "la vida de mujeres"? In this article on "de", Using the preposition "de" in Spanish with nouns for description , none of the examples have a definite article after de.
Yumm . . . plus café Americano for an international breakfast.
But what is the derivation of the word "blandurrias"? Might: "empapadas pero no blandurrias" be "mojadas pero no empapadas"?
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