Spanish language Q&A Forum

There's a previous B2 lesson on Kwiziq that teaches that "que" is an acceptable way to express "because". So why is "con lo que" a better answer to the question: "Me sorprende que él haya cedido ________ ha defendido su postura siempre" than simply "que"?

I have read this lesson and i think that stating that the tense of the verb following has to be the past participle would clear the confusion. 

Re les vs los below.. les is incorrect because ver is a transitive verb, correct? 

I know this keeps coming up, but in the examples we see: “las llaves de la casa”, and “la reserva de hotel”. Both these expressions follow the structure of NOUN + DE + NOUN. Why do we only use “la” for the first one?

This is as lousy an application as Duh-lingo.

QWhat Is the difference between estuve/estaba/era/fui

Se puede usar así en vez de "de esta manera?"

Gracias!

Why do you use the definitive article with "cumplir los deseos", but not with "con humildad y esperanza" ?

I understood pretty much all the sounds in this piece with the exception of 'gallega'.  To my (inadequate) hearing it sounded as if the narrator began the word with the letter 'r'.  

the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.

but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.

please correct me if I am wrong.