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5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 953,004 learners
Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 953,004 learners
I would like to ask exactly the same question as Benhur
I don't understand why Indefinido is used in the example; "Nos gustamos desde el primer momento." It has a definite starting point, but the sentence implies a continuing action. In this case could Imperfecto also be used correctly?
I don't understand how the text is "periphrasis" - in a roundabout way. How might it have been written other than the way it was?
So, I am working my way through Kwiziq. My question is that I am also thinking of having an online Spanish class, possibly twice a week...how do I go about finding someone? I will say that I would much prefer a group class of around three of four people - do they exist. Is anyone interested in getting together a small group of people?
Not exactly sure what "These adjectives are always invariable in masculine and feminine singular" is trying to tell me. Does this imply that -e ending nationalities can be either masculine or feminine?
When SE is used in a sentance, how kan we know if it referes to a "he" or a "she"??
Examples taken from your grammer:
Prepara la carne para el = Preparasela = Prepare it (the meat) for HIM
Firmen el documento para ella = Firmenselo = Sign it (the document) for HER
One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).
In one of my kwizzes, I got this one wrong. The correct choice was están for this sentence: "Mi padre están en el hospital" I chose está. Why is it wrong? Is it because está would be too informal when referring to parents? Or is this padre referring to a priest or something?
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