Separated double object pronouns HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
Nope. No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish. This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear." it is not.
Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer. Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language. The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken. So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can. Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.
under the dictation, a part of the sentence says
Y nos invitaban a todos a una ceremonia y una fiesta, en una estación de esquí la Navidad próxima.
i understand that nos invitaban = they invited us
nos invitaban a una fiesta = they invited us to a party
but what does a todos means?
ayudame por favor
muchas gracias
I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination? Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward". One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta". Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"? My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point. Is this the difference? Thanks for clarifying.
This below in the lesson could be this month or could be future. It is a bit confusing, why is the above wrong to be in the present, if it uses the same structure as the below?
Este mes tengo mucho trabajo.I have/am having a lot of work this month.Here, the speaker could be referring to the current month which they are still in, or they could be referring to this "coming" month
Could you explain the quiz quiestion that I got wrong? I chose "eso", for "I like that one" (a boligrafo). The correct answer was "ese". Yet "eso" is listed a correct option in the lesson if the object is not named in the sentence. Thanks.
Hi, the Spanish word for “for” is missing. Thanks, Shirley.
HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
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