Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"?  Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.

Below is the text from the lesson explaining your options with "por si/por si acaso". All of the examples use the imperfect subjective, but the fact that was the only option wasn't really clear until I read through the comments/questions.

From the Lesson: They introduce a subordinate clause expressing a condition. They can be followed by the subjunctive or the indicative.

In one of my kwizzes, I got this one wrong. The correct choice was están for this sentence: "Mi padre están en el hospital" I chose está.  Why is it wrong? Is it because está would be too informal when referring to parents? Or is this padre referring to a priest or something? 

Cuando queremos decir "you won't regret it!", por qué con el verbo arrepentirse lo usamos sin el objeto "it", pero cuando usamos el verbo lamentar, lo usamos con el objeto "it". 

Por ejemplo: No te arrepentirás (sin objeto) versus no lo lamentarás (con objeto)
 (muchas gracias)

Él pudo irse de vacaciones

why we use 'irse' in this sentence? instead of 'ir'

i think that a better answer to question would be "i am someone who really enjoys doing sports", rather than "i am more someone...". because otherwise it should have been "yo soy mas de hacer deporte"