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5,930 questions • 9,700 answers • 983,512 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,930 questions • 9,700 answers • 983,512 learners
Why is the first al used? I thought al meant “to the” or “at the”. It doesn’t make sense to say, Ana loves to the man.
Thank you in advance for your help,
Kim
We want exercises with answers would be very useful
Can you clarify rules please. I thought cuando + subjunctive was used for something that would happen therefore you needed a future tense or an imperative and not a continuous present as in estamos ahorrandothanks julie
In the example "A veces ________ que llevamos casados 20 años", why is simple olvido wrong? - when there was another question in another kwizz about forgetting a towel, and olvido was correct. How are we supposed to know if something is accidental or not? I must say that I find this lesson absolutely confusing and no matter what I put in the answer, it always seems to be wrong.
(And I notice that it lists me as C1. I'm not C1, I am still struggling with B2. The Kwizbot doesn't understand the fluctuating nature of how people learn, forget, re-learn, get wrong again, and so on.)
Why does one sentence use con terminación en., And the next sentence use que acaban en for the same English construction?
The correct answer was listed as “La gente siempre quiere …”. My response was “Siempre la gente quiere …” Do you have any guidelines on word sequence/placement? It seems like I’ve seen “siempre” at the beginning of a sentence or clause in other contexts. As always, muchas gracias for your insights!
Este texto no es largo. Tienen textos mas mas largos :) . Lo se, ya que he aprendido casi cada texto de niveles A1 y A2 y , los me ayudan mucho hablar y entender! Gracias por su trabajo!
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
I thought gustar was modified by the thing being liked (vs the person/people doing the liking), but when I chose gustan for liking the horse races I was marked wrong.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
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