Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,780 questions • 9,355 answers • 924,638 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,780 questions • 9,355 answers • 924,638 learners
Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...?
If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂
Hola,
The recorded reading of this exercise has some glitches.
In the second sentence, the speaker has added words, that are not in the written text and in the last sentence some words from the text are not read.
Gracias
Hi,
I am also a little confused by this lesson. I accept that they must be used as written but as the former modifies an adjective and the other a verb, how does this relate to the sentence above? Do they both relate in different ways to the second part of the sentence? Also, although they have the same translation, is there any difference to a Spanish speaker?
I need to understand when to apply each so that I don't make a mistake.
Gracias y saludos,
Colin
I understood from the lesson on 'Whoever / all those who' that todos aquellos was always followed by a subjunctive.
...una muñeca querida en los corazones de todos aquellos que han tenido el placer de disfrutar... shouldn't this be hayan tenido el placer?
Gracias
Hi,
For the sections "Eran aún mejores que..." and then after this "...en mis sueños.", I believe it might be a bit confusing to separate these parts of the same sentence as the use of the imperfect or preterite tense for the 'Ser' in this sentence relies on the context of to when this action refers. Just seeing the prompt "They were even better than...", I assumed that it was referring to the actual concert, which you would use the preterite of 'Ser' (Fueron) as it is a single and defined event, however when you see "...in my dreams." you then see it was referring to multiple, repeated instances so you would hence use the imperfect tense (Eran).
Perhaps I am mistaken?
Regardless, these quizzes are very good for practical and realistic Spanish usage.
Thanks,
Angus.
I had searched for “Subjunctive” and came across something entitled “It’s complicated explaining the Subjunctive”. It seemed to be what I was looking for, so I clicked on it. However, I was taken to a lesson on facíl/difícil. Can you correct the link? Basically, I’m trying to mover beyond the long list of situations requiring the mood, and understand the underlying principle(s). Somewhere I saw an article making a distinction between the informational and the intentional. Would you have any references covering this question? Thanks very much. John Nolan
When do we know it its te or tu gusta is it just dependent on if it is a reflextive verb or not
Este texto no es largo. Tienen textos mas mas largos :) . Lo se, ya que he aprendido casi cada texto de niveles A1 y A2 y , los me ayudan mucho hablar y entender! Gracias por su trabajo!
Hello, I'm slightly confused with the following:
Debe de haber llovido esta noche, porque los coches están mojados.As you can see from the previous examples, when we use deber with this nuance of assumption/wondering, we can optionally use the preposition "de" after deber.
So you are saying that "de" is truly optional and has the same meaning whether "de" is used or not?
Thank you,
Dave
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level