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5,498 questions • 8,748 answers • 848,467 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,498 questions • 8,748 answers • 848,467 learners
Suppose we want to say that a price has gone up from 20 pesos to 30 pesos. Could we say:
El precio ha aumentado de 20 pesos a 30 pesos.
El precio ha aumentado desde 20 pesos hasta 30 pesos.
Would either or both these statements be correct?
Thanks.
hi what's the rule for using the subjunctive here?thank you
How does one use porcentajes with this?
For the example:
De no llegar a tiempo perderíamos el vuelo.
If we didn't arrive on time we'd miss the flight.
I can only see four translations:(1) If we don't arrive on time we'll miss the flight. (or "we could miss")(2) If we hadn't arrived on time we would/could have missed the flight.
Could you please double-check your English translation? Thanks.
Hi,
My focus area is Latin America. I do see that this lesson is for peninsular Spanish, but I can't seem to find the appropriate equivalent lesson for L.A. Could you direct me to the correct page for Antes de que/Despues de que for L.A. students?
Thanks,
John Nolan
The note says quedarse can be used as emphasis of end results. So does that mean ‘se queda inmóvil’ meaning he ended up motionless ? Or is this meaning of quedarse different ?
It seems like it would be helpful if; when there is a statement and a response, that there would be two different speakers. This would give a conversational quality to the example.
Could you highlight this difference in the lesson in yellow or some sort of emphasis?
If we want to express the same but in the negative, the structure changes to:
llevar (conjugated) + sin + infinitive
And also, if correct, please add the explanation that the action changes from past participle to infinitive because sin is a preposition, and that prepositions are followed by infinitives, not past particples.
Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar. I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas." Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun? For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"? Thank you!
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