Spanish language Q&A Forum

Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar.  I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas."  Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun?  For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"?  Thank you!

Could you please explain why "un albornoz" is used when we are talking in plural saying "los modelos".  Both of them did not put on the same bath robe to use un albornoz in singular. Thank you

This app seems to find the holes in one's knowledge. I live in Spain, I'm not a fluent speaker, but I get by. I can read most Spanish papers, books etc without too many problems.     Listening, not so good, but not terrible. Been here eight years .  Did test, got A1! Did some of their A1 exercises, and got practically full marks.    Not sure I'd pay for this, but it's more demanding than the green owl related tutor!

Voy para la casa de mi amigo.  Is the use of para in this case particular to Spain?  IN Mexico and New Mexico(where I live) I'm pretty sure the sentence would use the prepossition "a" as in Voy a la piscina.

Are there lessons having to do with the pauses and intonation in Spanish speech? I guess I'm using English patterns to place commas and periods when transcribing spoken Spanish and am frequently wrong.

Now I know that when I listen to native speakers or have to read their WhatsApp messages, I shouldn't assume that their lo / le / las usage is correct.

It's not quite true that English has only two demonstratives - there's an older word still in common use at least in the North of England, usefully equivalent to 'aquel':

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/yonder

It's in wider use in the phrase 'wild blue yonder'