Spanish language Q&A Forum

I'm having trouble understanding circumstances when I need to insert definite articles (i.e., los, las, etc.) when translating a phrase in English that does not include the articles. Below is an example of what I'm referring to from this translation exercise:

[English sentence] "However, it is important for governments, companies and people to work together ..."

[Kwiziq Spanish translation] "No obstante, es importante que los gobiernos, las empresas, y las personas trabajen juntos..."

Why was it necessary to insert the definite articles "los" and "las"? I notice that sometimes they are included in the Kwiziq translations, and sometimes they are not. Please explain the grammatical rules that govern use of definite articles in such circumstances.

Thank you,

Pati Ecuamiga

For this question about recibir in the imperfect, I inserted the "personal a"  but it was marked wrong. Ayudame por favor!

In his small apartment he didn't receive guests. --> En su apartamento pequeño no recibía a visitas. (recibía was correct but adding a was marked wrong)

I think that the concept of "verbs like gustar" might become clearer by seeing a literal translation as well as the English interpretation/translation. 

Is this the correct sentence construction for "verbs like gustar"?

Indirect Object + verb like gustar + subject ?

Le entristece la mala noticia = The bad news saddens her.

Could the literal translation be: For her, the news is saddening OR should it be To her, the news saddens? Neither really make sense in English! “Her, the news saddens = The news saddens her” and makes the verb transitive, no? And “her” becomes the Direct Object “la” instead of the Indirect Object “le”. Can “entristecer” be used as a transitive verb AND as a “verb like gustar”?

But surely the more correct Spanish would be: 

Las malas noticias la entristecen OR la entristecen las malas noticias

Are both forms acceptable?

How then can I reconcile la in that last version with the le in the lesson version? "La" is a Direct Object while "le" is an Indirect Object, no?

So, again, can “entristecer” be both transitive and a “verb like gustar”? OR is either version incorrect?

 Phew! HELP?

you have been my best friend since we were children =  eres mi mejor amiga desde que éramos pequeñas.

BUT In the previous exercise 'My Love Story´

Since then, we've been joined at the hip   =  Desde entonces, hemos sido como uña y carne

When I queried why in the second example it was incorrect to say somos como uña y carne,  Sylvia explained:

This construction with "hemos sido" (present perfect) conveys the idea that the close relationship has been ongoing since that point in the past. Your attempt was almost correct, but using the present perfect aligns better with the context of an enduring connection over time.

I don't understand then why it is incorrect to say has estado mi mejor amiga desde que éramos pequeñas

Is it correct to say " he vivido en esta casa desde hace 20 años" ? There is an enduring connection. The lessons with desde always state the use of the present.

Gracias