Spanish language Q&A Forum

She hates cats. Not THE cats. Why "los gatos" then?

In the lesson on 'Para mí que'  it gives its use as -  'we simply express having a feeling, an inkling about something happening' 

The English text here says 'What amazes me...'  Surely that's stronger than an inkling!

It also says 'esta sigue siendo un medio de lo más popular'  Why isn't it 'este' as it refers to the masculine word medio

Gracias

Hi,

I don't understand why "estar" is in subjuntivo instead of indicativo.

Spanish names for:

 a ball valve

Inside or female threads 

male or outside threads

What is the difference?

the last sentence is 'to spend our money' and the answer is 'para gaster nuestro dinero'.

but can we say 'para gastarnos el dinero.'? because from what I understand, Spanish doesn't like to use pronouns with body parts and possessions.

please correct me if I am wrong.

The answer says:  Pasó dos días sumergido en plena naturaleza sin que nadie lo molestara enviándole mensajes o llamándolo.

Can you also say: Pasó dos días sumergido plena naturaleza sin que nadie le molestara enviándole mensajes o llamándole.

Is this  Spain vs Latin America  grammar?    Also, in general, I thought molestar was an inverted verb like gustar and required "le."

Could you say 'poner una chaquetta' instead of 'llevar una chaquetta'?