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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,775 questions • 9,413 answers • 937,481 learners
really enjoyable seeing the action described so clearly
In a quiz question, I used puede que + past subjunctive and it was marked incorrect. The correct response used the preterite. Why would the preterite be used after puede que?
Puede que perdiera el autobúsPuede que perdió el autobús.
Hello,
I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:
Tú hueles a perfume fresco.
or
Las galletas huelen a chocolate.
So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".
So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?
Thank you!
with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.
with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.
when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about. Has words in front of it
and their might be a name for those sorts of words.
so the question are these kinda "rules"
A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was "mas" talking about food.
It is ok to respond back with "Y tu tambien" when someone says to me in Spanish "Que tengas un buen fin de semana."
How do we know when to use El pretérito perfecto progresivo vs El indefinido progresivo?
Re my question below is les incorrect because ver is intransitive?
Are these correct?
A ti te gusta la historia y la fisica.
A mi me gusta el tenis y el futbol.
en el texto..
.. Si nunca visitaste México, hacelo en estas fechas. Creo que la vas a pasar muy bien...
questions
1. hacelo .. here does ´lo´ refer to ´viaje´ or something else ?
2. Shouldn´t it be ´hazlo´ instead of ´hacelo´
3. .. la vas a pasar.. what is ´la´ referring to? Don´t we usually say ´lo pasar bien´?
gracias como siempre
¿Podría ser correcto usar ambas verbos en el pretérito indefinido para decir algo diferente?
Por ejemplo "cuando vine a casa, ví el nuevo coche" en vez de "cuando venía a casa, ví el nuevo coche", para decir que lo ví inmediatamente después de que hubiera llegado (una acción cumplida, no interrumpida).
Eso me parecería lógico y algo similar sí se puede usar en inglés, pero ¿tiene sentido o es correcto en Español, o hay una forma distinta de decir algo así?
Espero que lo haya explicado suficiente claro... Muchas gracias.
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