Spanish language Q&A Forum

I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?

Thanks

Nope.  No real instruction can convey with clarity how to use the different past tenses in Spanish.  This is just another attempt here to try and make it "clear."  it is not.  

Spanish fluency was a goal of mine, but really not so much any longer.  Basically, because no one can really "instruct" on how to learn the language.  The only way to learn it is to revert to "infancy" and just hear it spoken.  So, move to a Spanish-speaking country or region and pick up what you can.  Most disheartening thing I have ever attempted to do is learning Spanish.

Just to clarify if I fully understand this lesson, would these 2 sentences be correct?: 

1. Roberto, cuyas hijas van al colegio de mi hija, es abogado. 

2. Tus padres, cuya casa actual es tan grande para sus necesidades, quieren una casa menos espaciosa.  

Many thanks for helping me get my head around this. Saludos ~Oscar   

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