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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,819 questions • 9,535 answers • 952,896 learners
I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb?
I think there might be a correction to the English is this sentence:
I've just seen the singer who they gave a prize last year.
I believe it should say:
I've just seen the singer to whom they gave a prize last year.
Desde que + subjunctive
When talking about past actions we can also use it with the subjunctive, but this makes it sound more formal.
I found the sentence, ¿por qué habría de asustar un sombrero?— me respondieron. I tried looking it up and apparently haber de can be used conditionally to express confusion of a topic. i think this is important as well as haber que, i saw it in a book although i can't remember the sentence haber que is apparently also another form of obligation like tener que
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
Hola,
Me confunde mucho el uso de ¨ser¨y ¨estar¨ en la voz pasiva. ¿Podrían ustedes aclararlo?
Gracias.
QWhat Is the difference between estuve/estaba/era/fui
When do we know it its te or tu gusta is it just dependent on if it is a reflextive verb or not
1. I notice that in the headings of this subject, the "de" is placed in parentheses and that while most of the examples keep the "de", a couple don't, that is only "antes que" is used. Can you explain why this is so? Is there a grammatical reason or rule?
2. Is there a subtle, nuanced difference between "Despues de que" and "Luego de que", or are they completely interchangeable regarding meaning and use?
3. Is the tense of the subjunctive verb in the subordinate clause (i.e., presente de subjuntivo vs. pretérito imperfecto subjuntivo) determined by the indicative tense in the main clause?
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