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5,818 questions • 9,524 answers • 952,733 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,818 questions • 9,524 answers • 952,733 learners
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
How does one use porcentajes with this?
Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...?
If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂
really enjoyable seeing the action described so clearly
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
Hi, the Spanish word for “for” is missing. Thanks, Shirley.
Why does one sentence use con terminación en., And the next sentence use que acaban en for the same English construction?
It says that the correct answer is "QUERÍAMOS". I don't understand why you don't use "quisimos". We wanted to help and actually did help, so it is a completed action.
The note says quedarse can be used as emphasis of end results. So does that mean ‘se queda inmóvil’ meaning he ended up motionless ? Or is this meaning of quedarse different ?
Hello, I'm slightly confused with the following:
Debe de haber llovido esta noche, porque los coches están mojados.As you can see from the previous examples, when we use deber with this nuance of assumption/wondering, we can optionally use the preposition "de" after deber.
So you are saying that "de" is truly optional and has the same meaning whether "de" is used or not?
Thank you,
Dave
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