Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,498 questions • 8,748 answers • 848,516 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,498 questions • 8,748 answers • 848,516 learners
I answered 'si, tengo' but it was marked incorrect and should have been' si, los tengo'. Would you explain please? Many thanks.
porque dice eso no es correcto en el primer paso
if the main clause is in future tense, do we use subjunctive too?
Estudiaré más dúro para que mis padres me traigan al extranjero
I will study harder so that my parents will bring me overseas
In the first two paragraphs it says "de" is followed by a noun, but the examples all appear to place "de" before an adjective with the noun preceding "de." Can you explain this conundrum? Thank you.
can ¡Qué loco! be written as ¡cuánto loco! ?
Can i also say 'no necesitas más que obtener una licencia matrimonial' ?
I know ser means ‘to be’ in terms of characteristics and estar means ‘to be’ in temporary sense or in terms of location but why does this exercise use estar for ‘to be clear’ and ‘is cloudy’ but ser for ‘can be unstable’?
When do we know it its te or tu gusta is it just dependent on if it is a reflextive verb or not
Hello,
I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:
Tú hueles a perfume fresco.
or
Las galletas huelen a chocolate.
So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".
So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?
Thank you!
Isn't there an exception for locations of events? For example in: "¿Dónde es la reunión?"
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level