Spanish language Q&A Forum

What is impeative?

Ok, I meant to ask earlier, but when I heard this same phrase for the third or fourth time while watching "¿Quién mató a Sara?" it just really started bugging me: this seems to be a great example of the impersonal ellos form (the whole premise is that he thinks she was killed but doesn't actually know who did it!) but I can't understand why that "la" is there. "La mataron" or "A Sara Mataron" I get, but how isn't it redundant to have both...? 

If anyone knows what's going on here, thanks in advance for any insight you're willing to offer! (but no spoilers please!) 😂 

Why is there a “th” sound in 19 or is this Castilian pronunciation?

Hello!  Thank you for this wonderfully clear explanation of the accidental se.  I noticed that in several examples that are translated with a possessive adjective in English, a definite article is used in Spanish.  For example, "Se me rompió EL reloj ayer" is translated as "MY watch broke (accidentally) yesterday.  I have several questions about this.  First, would it be presumed in this sentence that it is MY watch?  Second, would it ever be correct to say "Se me rompió MI reloj ayer"?  What if I wanted to say that I broke my favorite watch (e.g., modifying reloj): Would it still be "Se me rompió el reloj favorito"?  Finally, if I wanted to specify that it was someone else's watch:  "Se me rompió el reloj de mi mejor amiga"?  Thank you in advance for clarifying.  This is a challenging topic for me!

One of the examples given is: "Nadie responde...lo mismo el restaurante ha cerrado."  Can you say the same thing and exchange "lo mismo" for "quizas": "Nadie responde...quizas el restaurante haya cerrado."?  

I understand that no articles are used in negatives 

e.g no hay tienda

Therefore, I am asking whether you would also drop the article in this sense?

e.g hay el de rojo--> no hay de rojo?

Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions. 

First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct? 

Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!