Spanish language Q&A Forum

Gracias Shui por compartir un poema tan hermoso y romántico. ¡Qué triste también! Nada es más emotivo que el amor perdido entre una pareja. ¡Es increíble que Pablo solo tenía 19 años cuando escribió este poema!

Somos muy afortunados de tener tantos maravillosos poetas y novelistas hispanohablantes. Para mí este poema muestra cuan rica y expresiva es la lengua española.

Saludos 😊

Now everywhere I look online it suggests that this should only say 'lo dejé' and not 'me lo dejé'. Why would they add 'me'? It doesn't feel like it needs it, as the 'I forgot' bit is understood by dejé, and the 'it' by lo. It isn't reflexive I don't think. 

Thanks!

I think I understand the difference in the usage of adentro, vs. dentro (de) but does the same principle apply to afuera vs. afuera (de)?

Hi Inma, I had a thought about V's question below and wanted to check it with you.  This applies to statements which don't give any time indicators.

If the speaker is thinking of themselves in the present time, then they will see the past event as complete.  "Mi prima fue Miss Universe."  In other words, "We're here in the present, and that is a past event which is complete."

However if the speaker is mentally placing themselves in the past, they would say "Mi prima era Miss Universe,"  as a way of placing you inside the narrative in the past time frame.  Kind of like saying, "Let's mentally travel to the past, when my cousin was Miss Univetse."

Hope this is makes senss.  If it's correct, it will be a useful concept for me.  Thanks.

with NOUNs the mas or menos is before the noun.

with verbs They are after the conjugated verb.

when used as a pronoun is after the noun it talking about.   Has words in front of it

and their might be a name for those sorts of words.

so the question are these kinda "rules"

A story I had a teacher and first words the son said was   "mas" talking about food.

 I just wanted to add that it seems like a similar thing IS actually done in colloquial English in certain rare cases and the form and nuance is very similar--eg "they say it's tricky to learn" where the "they" is someone unspecified or people in general and not particularly relevant. (In more formal English, other ways of expressing the idea would sound less "colloquial", but it would  sound very normal in conversation.) But what I'm seeing is that in Spanish this has much broader use, and is quite natural in many cases where in english you'd have to use a passive construction (or another pronoun instead to keep the impersonal sense)--eg, "He was robbed," or maybe "someone robbed him", but not "they robbed him" because in English that implies subjects already mentioned or known and wouldn't sound impersonal (at least, not in any dialect I've encountered). Yet helpfully, the Spanish form isn't TOTALLY alien to an English speaker, just a lot more freely used. Gee, isn't language fun?! 🙃 

en lugar de:  "Mar Azul se convirtió en un símbolo de superación..."?

gracias

Can I ask you that when a thing and a thing (singular noun) or a thing and things (singular noun and plural noun)... followed verb "gustar" like listing, gusta or gustan is right?

For example: 

1. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y la golosina.

2. Me (gusta/gustan) el chocolate y las golosinas.

3. Me (gusta/gustan) las golosinas y el chocolate.

Thank u so much

 You say "Ustedes" which is plural but you translate it as "you" in the singular in the answer, so the learner does not know which answer to choose.