Spanish language Q&A Forum

The test question is:

Hello,

I noticed that oler seems to be sometimes built with the preposition "a" before introducing the smell of something, such as in:

Tú hueles a perfume fresco. 

or

Las galletas huelen a chocolate.

So I thought it was used in the meaning of "smelling like something", when the subject themselves smells like something. But then I also noticed it in ¿Vosotros oléis a pollo quemado?".

So is the "a" used rather when the smell has no article? What is the rule (if any)?

Thank you!

I don't want to quibble about details with native teachers but I was puzzled by the tip box at the bottom of this lesson saying "Remember that after poder(conjugated in any tense) you will always find an infinitive. "

I'm unsure what to make of this given that I have not always found an infinitive after poder. The example that immediately came to mind was "No puedo más." Which I stuck out in my mind precisely because  I found it odd that "puedo" was NOT followed by another verb.

Hi, i cannot see any transcript about this reading passage. i can just listen to it. what can be the problem?

I understand that some verbs are stem changing. In the example of "e" to "ie" verbs, the last "e" of the stem turns into "ie". This rule seems to be true for verbs like nevar (nieva), but why not verbs like "tener"?

Not really a question but this lesson could be better if in included the three rules for plural

1# ends in vowel add s

2# ends in consonant add es

3# ends in z change to c and add es.

as far as I know this is correct

The instructions say to use "indefinido" but the indicitive mood examples use imperfecto. Also, the question asked on the quiz only has imperfecto and futuro simple as options. I went with imperfecto and it was marked correct.

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If the main clause uses a tense that implies a past action, for example El Pretérito Indefinido or El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto, then the por si/por si acaso clause uses a past tense.