Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi,

In many lessons and responses to questions, I have read that when deciding if you are to use imperfecto or indefinido, it is up to how the speaker thinks about the event. If the speaker thinks the event had a clear start and end, you should use indefinido, and if not you use imperfecto. Does this mean that it is entirely up to the speaker to decide which past tense is correct? I understand that there are situations where it is clear which is right and wrong, but I feel like in many cases it is a bit more ambiguous. 

One of the English sentences to translate were 'the Spanish colonization' but the answer was 'Pasando por la colonizacion espanola'. I think part of the English sentence is missing?

Hi, I've just come across a use of estar + hecho that I didn't know before: 
  Tu hermano está hecho un hombretón. 

That doesn't seem to be quite the same as the usage here, and I cannot find any reference to this kind of estar + hecho elsewhere on kwiziq...

Just want to mention that there are a few spacing errors that make identifiers show up in the wrong place.  Ex:  Ella no quiere que nosotros comamos tan rápido. (present subjunctive)

She doesn't want us to eat so fast.

I don't want to quibble about details with native teachers but I was puzzled by the tip box at the bottom of this lesson saying "Remember that after poder(conjugated in any tense) you will always find an infinitive. "

I'm unsure what to make of this given that I have not always found an infinitive after poder. The example that immediately came to mind was "No puedo más." Which I stuck out in my mind precisely because  I found it odd that "puedo" was NOT followed by another verb.

Sure "agua"means "water" but I think in this case the singer was saying "Look out now!" as a heads up for the band rhythm solo . . .

Can "esto" be used as a demonstrative pronoun?  For example, esto libro?

Hola Inma, 

Very comprehensive and has cleared up a lot of my confusion. Saludos. John

Cuando un hotel de cinco estrellas se te quede demasiado pequeño

I don't understand the function of 'se' in this phrase. Is it really incorrect to omit it?

I've checked the lesson on quedar(se) but don't see the rule here.

Gracias