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5,725 questions • 9,212 answers • 906,933 learners
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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,725 questions • 9,212 answers • 906,933 learners
La narradora dice “las pilas” pero el texto dice “la pilas”, y el programa te corrige si escribes “las pilas” en tu transcripción. Me gusta esta expresión que no conocía antes. Creo que ya la entiendo, pero tal vez merezca una pequeña nota. ¡Gracias!
Is it correct, in addition to "Whose books are those?" that this could also be translated as "From whom are those books?" I realize that in a perfect world, the context would clear up any ambiguity, but am I correct that the latter is a valid translation?
Thanks!
What's the difference if I use 'todos los correos' instead in the first example?
Looking forward to seeing some content here.
Gracias
Puedo usar el futuro simples en esta oracione? "En la reunión, vamos a hablar de nuevas tecnologías y vamos a intercambiar ideas." Podria decir: "hablaremos de nuevas tecnologias y intercambiaremos ideas"?
How would you say, "They work as much as they play," meaning quantity of time they spend?
¿«Trabajan tanto como juegan.»?
But if you say, "They work as well as they play," meaning with the same quality of enjoyment, ¿would you say,
«Trabajan tan como juegan.»?
In Kwiziq, there's a lesson on -ito etc and a lesson on -illo etc. I'm living in Ecuador and have traveled around Central and South America a bit, and I've heard both groups of suffixes used in what seems to be the exact same way. I guess I'm looking for a little clarity on whether they are 100% interchangeable.
Am I correct that team -ito and team -illo mean the same thing - they make a word diminutive, softer, affectionate - and that the real difference is just in local usage? I can use either group of suffixes, and not be wrong, but one group is just more common in certain areas than the other?
My apologies if you've answered this elsewhere. I reviewed the other questions, and I did not find an answer that makes me confident that my understanding is correct.
And thanks, in advance for your help.
Do I need to use sino que when any conjugated verb follows, or only when the conjugated verb is different from the conjugated verb in the first clause? If the verbs are the same (vas a +infinitive) which is correct?
Why are these two sentences different? One uses "para comprar" and the other just "comprar." I want to understand the rule that allows you to omit "para" before an infinitive.
1. Le costó 5 dólares comprarlo de nuevo.
2. Él necesita 5 dólares para comprarlo.
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