Spanish language Q&A Forum

For the question - Este abrigo ________ un montón ¡Es estupendo para el invierno en la montaña! This coat is really warm. It's great for winter in the mountains!

I am wondering why a verb would be used to describe the coat? I thought an adjective like cálido would be used as a description of the coat being warm. 

Hi!! I would like to ask a question. So I'm doing a presentation in Spanish and i want to use the present perfect subjunctive in the last sentence. I want to say "I hope you enjoyed my presentation". The dictionary says that it's "espero que les haya gustado mi precentación", but isn't "haya" the verb form for "usted" and not "ustedes"? Several people are going to listen to me, so I want to address them all. What do I say? Is it "espero que les hayán gustado mi precentación" or "espero que les hayáis gustado mi precentación", or is it the sentence I wrote earlier?

Thank you in advance!!

No seas tonto.   It feels like we are describing a temporary condition. Why is ser used?

In one question, I was tasked to translate "I want to buy it for him."     I selected " Quiero se lo comprar."   and was marked wrong.   I understand that one could say "Quiero comprárselo." , which was the correct answer.   But I always thought that you could have the pronouns attached to the infinitive or put them in front.   

thus declaring itself the Republic of Paraguay in 1813

The bot offers two possibilities:

1  .. proclamando así  la República del Paraguay en 1813.

2  .. proclamándose de este modo la República del Paraguay en 1813.

I put ... proclamándose así la República del Paraguay en 1813. which was marked as an error.

Is there a difference in usage between  'así´ and  'de este modo'

Also, why is it la República del Paraguay  but  la República de Argentina ?

Gracias

I've used "le" for men AND women (e.g. "Un gusto conocerle!", "Pásenle" etc.), but the article says it's only for men. This is Spanish spoken in a Mexican-American household, so I don't know how that affects things-- could be improper Spanish, but I thought I'd check because I hear it often. 

Hola, Inma,

In a previous reply to Remy, you gave the example:

Quizás Miguel no apruebe.

He may not pass (in the future, he hasn't done the exam yet)

Quizás Miguel no aprobara.

He may not have passed (he already did the exam and we doubt if he passed or not)

Is it possible to use the perfect here

Quizás Miguel no haya aprobado.

and if so, how would the meaning be different from the earlier two examples?

Thanks in advance for your help.

This triggers subjunctive. may i ask if this is because this sentence is asking for advice?

Because i remember that only negative construction of opinions will trigger subjunctive, for example i dont think that = no creo que.. 

or is this understanding of mine wrong too?

thanks

why would there be accent on vosotros form sometimes and sometimes not?