Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, being back after a few months, I noticed that all example sentences use indicative mood, while the one in the lessons was in subjunctive:

De habérmelo explicado antes, no me hubiera enfadado tanto.

Why isn't this conditional, ... no me habría enfadado tanto?

The correct answer was listed as “La gente siempre quiere …”. My response was “Siempre la gente quiere …” Do you have any guidelines on word sequence/placement? It seems like I’ve seen “siempre” at the beginning of a sentence or clause in other contexts. As always, muchas gracias for your insights!

I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?"  (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone  "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."

Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?

I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...

What is the indirect object pronoun for

A Javier ya a Sara ____

Regardless of gender, would you always use un when talking of self?  For instance, Soy un cocinera mala. 

I said this phrase was incorrect as I though the a in ave would change the una to an un.

However I was marked wrong and apparently it is a correct phrase.

Is this another exception to the rule?

Do I need to use sino que when any conjugated verb follows, or only when the conjugated verb is different from the conjugated verb in the first clause? If the verbs are the same (vas a +infinitive) which is correct?

I'm reassured to see that even Mexican reporters sometimes conjugate their verbs incorrectly.