Spanish language Q&A Forum

This example is wrong, no? Quizá Miguel no aprobara.

This is in the imperfect subjunctive. Shouldn't it be apruebe?

In the example "A veces ________ que llevamos casados 20 años", why is simple olvido wrong? - when there was another question in another kwizz about forgetting a towel, and olvido was correct. How are we supposed to know if something is accidental or not? I must say that I find this lesson absolutely confusing and no matter what I put in the answer, it always seems to be wrong. 

(And I notice that it lists me as C1. I'm not C1, I am still struggling with B2. The Kwizbot doesn't understand the fluctuating nature of how people learn, forget, re-learn, get wrong again, and so on.)

I understand that when "tal vez" and "quizas" are used, they can be followed by either subjunctive or indicative mood.  But "a lo mejor" only accepts indicative mood.  And, since "tal vez", "quizas", and "a lo mejor" can all be translated as "maybe" in English, this creates some confusion for English speakers.  My question is this: even though they are all tranlated as "maybe" in english, does the phrase "a lo mejor" convey less doubt/uncertainty than "tal vez/quizas" in spanish?

So, I'm trying to solidify this idea in my head by contrasting it with the imperfecto de subjuntivo. Is the subordinate clause not in the subjunctive here because the speaker (presumably the 3rd party and the person repeating the statement) take for granted the factual of the idea (ie in the sentence "el hombre de tiempo dijo que llovería hoy" that the idea that it is going to rain is considered a fact, and not a supposition. 

Si yo quisiera decir "the more people i meet, the happier i will be", ¿sería "Cuanta más gente conozca yo, más feliz seré", o "Cuanta más gente a la que conozca yo, más feliz seré?