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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,073 questions • 9,948 answers • 1,033,468 learners
Using an online translator to translate "Then it can be demonstrated that the statement is true."
I get "Entonces se puede demostrar que la afirmación es verdadera."
In the English translation it is optional whether you say "it can be demonstrated" or "one can demonstrate".
Is this the same construct as the one covered in this lesson? If so, should there be examples of it above? If not, is there a lesson that covers this one?
Thank you!
Gracias Shui por compartir un poema tan hermoso y romántico. ¡Qué triste también! Nada es más emotivo que el amor perdido entre una pareja. ¡Es increíble que Pablo solo tenía 19 años cuando escribió este poema!
Somos muy afortunados de tener tantos maravillosos poetas y novelistas hispanohablantes. Para mí este poema muestra cuan rica y expresiva es la lengua española.
Saludos 😊
In the case of the broken radio, using 'es' suggests the radio is irreparable, whereas 'está' suggests it can be repaired
You only give two forms- "todavia no [verb]" and "no [verb] todavia", yet a vast majority of your sentences are "no [entire sentence] todavia" as you put "yet" at the end of the sentence. But, even when you do put the word "yet" early in the sentence, you still require "no [entire sentence] todavia" as the answer, which is not even an option in the instructions above. It makes it very frustrating as I am struggling with a recent surge in progress and trying to solidify it and work my way through A2. Your site is wonderful, but there are a few frustrating areas :)
why is tenido sometimes with an accent on the nand sometimes without. The correct answer for this question was with an accent wheras another question using tenido was without. My collins dictionary says without.
Porqué usa se puede ver muchas flores en vez de se puede ver muchas flores.
Hello,
Just to note that in one of the examples above, the English translation is not correct:
Él no te habría querido tanto como yo.He would not have loved you as much as me.While some (many!) English-speakers may say this (incorrectly), the actual meaning of what they are saying is: "He would not have loved you as much as (he loved/s) me."
The correct translation of the Spanish sentence would be:
"He would not have loved you as much as I do/did."
Is there a reason that the verb tense is "buscaria" "reduciria" instead of "busca" "reduce" etc.?
I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination? Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward". One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta". Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"? My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point. Is this the difference? Thanks for clarifying.
Accent should be on the a in cuál, not the u.
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