Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, being back after a few months, I noticed that all example sentences use indicative mood, while the one in the lessons was in subjunctive:

De habérmelo explicado antes, no me hubiera enfadado tanto.

Why isn't this conditional, ... no me habría enfadado tanto?

In one quiz answer it marked me wrong for choosing “Se llama [girl’s name],” saying I should have chosen “Ella se llama…” Then in the next quiz I chose “Él se llama” and it was marked wrong, saying I should have chosen “Se llama.” I’m confused, what is the difference?

In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."

A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."

I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.

So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?

In this sentence:  "Les lazo la pelota y deben apagarla con las dos manos."  

I throw you the ball, and you must stop it with two hands.

I don't understand the use of 'Les" is it referring to 'you"?

Su autora es Irene Orce

Isn´t "haber" an irregular verb for the tú imperative since it is "he" rather than "ha"?

Hola,

The first sentence above uses 'mayor' to mean eldest.  How would you say 'elder'?

How can you be sure which is meant between the two?

How do you for the superlatives and the opposites (the least) of the comparatives?

Muchas gracias.

Saludos,

Colin

For ‘to need to’, when to use necessitated and when to use tener que?