Spanish language Q&A Forum

One of the options for a mini kwiz question, ""Suspendió el examen, no porque ________ sino porque ese día no se sentía bien." As I understood it, no porque could be used with either subjunctive or indicative and not change the meaning. Why isn't "no porque no iba a estudiar" an option along with the other two examples (which were subjunctive).

The hints giving in the mini quiz for this lesson are not very helpful.  Correct me if I am wrong, but the verb that we need to conjugate is ir not the second verb in the infinitive.  Therefore, the hint should read conjugate ir in el presente, correct?

Hi, i cannot see any transcript about this reading passage. i can just listen to it. what can be the problem?

Él pudo irse de vacaciones

why we use 'irse' in this sentence? instead of 'ir'

In answering this question, I used "excepto por".  The lesson doesn't cover this option, but I have seen it in written Spanish.

Except for the white one, all the t-shirts are cool.

Esta pizza se ve deliciosa  

Cómo ves esta hamburguesa

I have realised that  verse can be used to say how someone thinks of something. Is this correct? I can’t find such meaning in dictionary but I’ve been seeing this se ve a lot. 

the lesson note wrote that due to english's influence, we do use en

then it says en can be used to mean within a time period such as en una hora = in, within one hour

is this use not recommended too? if so, what is the spanish correct way of saying within an hour etc?

I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?"  (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone  "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."

Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?

I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...