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5,944 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,247 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,944 questions • 9,714 answers • 987,247 learners
"El anuncio decía que" shouldn't we use "Indefinido" here, as the action we're talking about was done yesterday. We are not describing here?
Hi, being back after a few months, I noticed that all example sentences use indicative mood, while the one in the lessons was in subjunctive:
De habérmelo explicado antes, no me hubiera enfadado tanto.
Why isn't this conditional, ... no me habría enfadado tanto?
Lo que dice Eva H. sobre mezclar frutas es muy cierto. Las posibilidades son ilimitadas, como el universo. Pero, todas las frutas tienen diferentes niveles de digestibilidad y mezclar una fruta ácida con una alcalina puede causar indigestión, dolorosa o no. Creo que la gente inculta ha asumido que como la "fruta" se considera ser "sana", al combinar muchas frutas los resultados serán "más sanos". Sin embargo, una macedonia de frutas suele ser la causa de un dolor de barriga y, por supuesto, que las zanahorias y las espinacas sean "saludables" también, no significa que su adición a un zumo de frutas lo mejore.
¡Por las posibilidades ilimitadas del Universo!
There is another chapter on using qué + noun + verb. ¡Qué lento va esa coche! = ¡Qué coche tan lento! Is this the same and correct ?
How would you say, "I am proud of myself" and "I will do it myself"?
Nice lesson! In what cases would use of the definite article be mandatory, grammatically speaking?
Also, as far as I can tell, the pronoun's gender does not relate to the gender of a person, the definite article can provide that clarification when needed.
Thank you.
I've listened over and over and can't hear the Y in "José y María".
Is it not there or am I just unable to hear it?
Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions.
First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct?
Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!
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