Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
thus declaring itself the Republic of Paraguay in 1813
The bot offers two possibilities:
1 .. proclamando así la República del Paraguay en 1813.
2 .. proclamándose de este modo la República del Paraguay en 1813.
I put ... proclamándose así la República del Paraguay en 1813. which was marked as an error.
Is there a difference in usage between 'así´ and 'de este modo'
Also, why is it la República del Paraguay but la República de Argentina ?
Gracias
I have noticed that many questions are unanswered. Inma's responses were always very informative and greatly appreciated. So I was wondering if she will be back.
"... contemplaría llover intensamente" is an interesting semantic construction - not immediately intuitive to a native English speaker. However, it is consistent with the fact that Spanish often tends to use an infinitive to translate a gerund or a noun in English: [you do have at least one exercise illustrating this point, I believe].
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
In the video, the second sentence sounded to me like ´los deportistas griegos..´ But in the text it says ´los deportistas ciegos´. Since it talked about las Olimpiadas, would ´griegos´more likely be what the narrator said?
Does «media naranja» (soulmate) literally mean "orange sock"? How did this term for "soulmate" develop in Spanish culture?
In Thea question in the quiz, they give you the hint to conjugate hacer in el conditional simple which I did but my answer was marked as wrong. Can you explain why please? Thank you
In the sentence below, wouldn't be correct to use 'tenemos' instead of 'tengamos'? Muchas gracias!
. Por otro lado, es genial que a los dos nos encanten la música y el deporte y que tengamos muchos amigos en común.
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